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Identification Information and Courses from MediaLab, Inc.

These are the MediaLab courses that cover Identification and links to relevant pages within the course.

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Laboratories Individuals

Antibody Detection and Identification
Case Study Two

1. Based on these reactions, which antibody or antibodies could be present?2. Based on these reactions, which antibodies can be ruled out?3. What further testing, if any, should be done to assist in the antibody identification?

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Example 4- Multiple Antibodies

In this example the patient's plasma tests positive with both screening cells at a strength of 4+. In the panel below, reaction patterns show varying strengths, 2+ to 4+ (highlighted in green).4+ could indicate one strong antibody or a combination of several antibodies that increases the strength of the reaction.3+ could indicate one strong antibody.2+ could indicate one the reaction between one weak antibody and the corresponding antigen that is present on with the other target antigen not present on that testing cell. If the panel cell is in the heterozygous state, the reaction of the antibodies present may be weaker if they commonly exhibit dosage. Since Cw, Kpa, Jsa, Lua are not present on the testing cells they are probably not causing these reactions. Perform rule outs using panel cells 5 and 7 (sample had no reaction in any phase with these panel cells) Cells that have at least 1 out of the 3 rule outs needed: C, c, e, K,k, Kpb, Jsb, Fya, Jkb, Lea, M, N, s, P1, Lub Antibodies that could not be ruled out with this panel: D,E, K, Fyb, Jka, Leb, S Predominant pattern of 4+ in panel cells 1,2,3,4,10 matches D Varying strengths in reactions indicates a possible second antibody so selected cells should be picked to aid in identification Find a panel cell negative for D (antibody you suspect) and homozygous positive for the antibody you are trying to rule out. For example: D E e K k Fya Fyb Jka Jkb Lea Leb S s Donor cell 1 0 0 + 0 + 0 + + + 0 + 0 + Donor cell 1 could be used as a rule out test for e, k, Fyb and Leb. Reactions should be negative if these antibodies are not present.You should have a total of 3 negative reactions with panel or screen cells to rule out potential antibodies. If reactions with this panel cell are negative, then e and k can be ruled out with a total of 3 to rule out reactions. Selected cells should be picked for each antibody that needs to be ruled out in order to determine the identity of the other antibody

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Case Study Three

Based on these reactions, which antibody or antibodies could be present? Is there any significance to the varying reaction strengths? Which antibodies can be ruled out based on these reactions? What further testing, if any, should be done to help in the antibody identification?

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Selected Cell Panels

Purpose: To design a set of panel cells that may help you to rule out additional antibodies and lead to the identification of the antibody that is present in the patient's plasma.Benefit of running selected cell panel: Decreases the use of reagents and specimen. How to choose selected panel cells: If you suspect that a specific antibody is present, the cells you choose for the select panel should be negative for that antigen and positive for the antigen you are trying to rule out (homozygous state).

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Products Used to Facilitate Antibody Identification

Monospecific anti-human globulin (IgG) enables sensitized red cells to cross-link so that agglutination is visible.Enhancement media are sometimes used to further promote agglutination and reduce incubation time. Low ionic strength saline (LISS) is the most common enhancement media. LISS reduces the ionic strength in the testing sample and causes reduction of the zeta potential. It increases antibody uptake and decreases incubation time. Polyethylene Glycol (PEG): brings red blood cells (RBCs) closer together and concentrates antibodies by removing water molecules from the testing sample. It is the most sensitive of the enhancement media; strengthening almost all clinically significant antibodies. However, it will also enhance some clinically insignificant antibodies as well. Centrifugation should be avoided when PEG is used. PEG can cause aggregates to form if the sample (red cell - serum mixture) with PEG added is centrifuged. Reaction readings should only be done at the AHG phase. 22% Albumin: reduces zeta potential, bringing the RBCs closer together and enhancing agglutination. Albumin does not contribute much to antibody uptake. Longer incubation time is needed with this media than with the previously discussed media. Detection of some IgG antibodies can be enhanced with enzyme test methods. Proteolytic enzymes (papain and ficin) denature some RBC antigens and remove negative charges from the RBC membranes. This reduces the zeta potential, bringing the cells closer together. Enzyme techniques are particularly useful in the identification of Rh antibodies and antibodies in the Kidd, Lewis, P and I systems. However, enzymes destroy some antigens including Fya, Fyb, M, and N. The effect of proteolytic enzymes on the S and s antigens are variable.

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Test Methods

The three most commonly used methods in antibody detection and identification are tube, gel and solid phase.Increased sensitivity in detection of antibodies is seen when using the tube method with PEG or the gel method (especially for mixed field reactions). Solid phase testing has a better sensitivity than just using the test tube method with LISS.

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Course Introduction

Antibody screening and antibody identification are critical components in blood bank testing. Clinically significant antibodies must be identified so that appropriate blood products are selected for transfusion and the risk of adverse reaction is minimized. Clinically significant antibodies are capable of causing transfusion reactions, hemolytic disease of the newborn and in severe cases, death.This course will discuss the techniques that are used by blood bank technologists to detect and identify various types of antibodies.

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Cerebrospinal Fluid

CLIA Chemistry / Urinalysis Review
The elements indicated by the arrows are more likely to be seen in patients with which condition:View Page
Identify the urine sediment element shown by the arrow:View Page
Thin-layer chromatography is particularly useful as a tool in the identification of:View Page

CLIA Microbiology / Serology Review
Recovered from a sputum sample, this suspicious form measures 112 micro meters by 55 micro meters.View Page
This suspicious form, seen in a scotch tape prep, measures 54 micro meters by 28 micro meters.View Page
Which of the following is used as the indicator in the rapid carbohydrate utilization tests:View Page
Which of the following is a presumptive test for the identification of Lancefield group A Streptococcus:View Page
The indole test may be used to differentiate members of which of the following species:View Page
On sheep blood agar Haemophilus influenzae may exhibit satellite formation around all but which of the following organisms:View Page
Bacitracin susceptibility is useful for which two of the following:View Page

Current Topics in Clinical Microbiology
The Superoxol Test

Superoxol is an additional spot test that may be helpful in the presumptive identification of N. gonorrhoeae.Superoxol is 30% hydrogen peroxide, in contrast to the 3% solution that is used in the catalase test.Other Neisseria species and Moraxella catarrhalis are either negative for this test or give a weak, delayed reaction.

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The carbohydrate utilization reaction seen in the QuadFerm system shown in the picture provides a definitive identification of N. gonorrhoeae:View Page
Review 2

Smith KR, Fisher HC III, Hook, EW III: Prevalence of fluorescent monoclonal antibody-nonreactive Neisseria gonorrhoeae in five North American sexually transmitted disease clinics.J Clin Microbiol 34:1551-1552, 1996We compared a direct fluorescent monoclonal antibody (DFA) test with alternative enzymatic and fermention tests for identifying presumptive gonococcal isolates in a systematic sample from patients attending five sexually transmitted disease clinics in five cities.Fourteen (2.5%) of 556 isolates from three clinics were nonreactive with the DFA confirmatory reagent and reactive by both the Quad-Ferm and Rapid NH tests. The prevalence of DFA-nonreactive Neisseria gonorrhoeae isolates varies geographically and is independent of local methods for the identification of possible gonococci.On the basis of our findings, we recommend that for use in medicolegal and other instances in which a diagnosis of gonorrhea has the potential to have far-reaching effects, it is appropriate to test DFA reagent-nonreactive, oxidase-positive, gram-negative diplococci by alternative methods of gonococcal confirmation.Although the prevalence of such isolates could change, the fluorescent monoclonal antibody confirmation reagents remain useful for many clinical situations. Their ease of use and ready applicability for screening large numbers of isolates make them useful for many laboratories.

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The recovery of an oxidase-positive, gram-negative diplococcus that tests DFA-nonreactive should be tested by alternative methods when establishing a fool-proof diagnosis of gonorrhea.View Page
Based on the gram stain morphology observed before, the possible presumptive identifications might include "gram positive cocci consistent with...View Page
The patient was admitted to the hospital. The sputum specimen was inoculated to sheep blood agar. Based on the colony morphology and the alpha hemolysis seen in the accompanying photograph, the most likely identification is:View Page
The reactions seen in the portion of the API strip shown in the photograph, effectively rules out Escherichia coli.View Page
The bacterial species shown growing on 5% sheep blood agar was recovered from the spun sediment of a midstream urine specimen after 24 hours incubation at 35C. Each of the following tests would be useful in supporting the presumptive identification of Enterococcus species except:View Page
The spot test that is helpful in separating Enterococcus species (positive as shown in the photograph) from the viridans streptococci and S. pneumoniae (both negative) is:View Page
Enterococcus faecium ID

As a high percentage of Enterococcus faecium strains carry the Van A gene and are highly resistant to vancomycin. Species identifications are performed in some laboratories where MIC susceptibility testing may not be available.Methods for the phenotypic separation of E. faecium from E. faecalis are limited.Illustrated in this photograph are positive reactions for acid production from arabinose and melibiose (yellow color), characteristic of E. faecium. E. faecalis are negative for these reactions.A few preformed substrates such as beta galactosidase (E. faecium positive, E. faecalis negative) also serve to separate these two species, accomplished by certain commercial systems that include these substrates.E. faecium is not motile, an additional characteristic helpful to separate vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus species from E. cassiloflavus and E. gallinarum, both of which are motile, and carry the low level resistant gene VAN-c.

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The gram stain shown in the photograph was prepared from a positive anaerobic blood culture bottle after 36 hours incubation. Based on the morphology of the bacterial cells (some with spores--blue arrows), the most likely identification is:View Page
Clostridium Quad Plate

Key reactions for the identification of Clostridium septicum are shown in the two quadrant plates shown in the photograph.Included in the upper photograph are reactions for milk (casein) proteolysis (12 o'clock quadrant), glucose fermentation, DNAse hydrolysis, and starch hydrolysis respectively reading clockwise.The media in the quadrant plate shown in the lower photograph include gelatin hydrolysis (2 o'clock quadrant) and fermentation of each of mannitol, lactose, and rhamnose respectively, reading clockwise.Milk (casein) hydrolysis Glucose fermentation Key reactions for the identification in the upper plate include no proteolysis of milk, fermentation of glucose (yellow red color along the inoculation streak), positive DNAse (reddish clearing around the streak) and negative reaction for starch. Key reactions in the lower plate include hydrolysis of gelatin, fermentation of lactose (yellow pigment), and negative reactions for mannitol and rhamnose (no pigment).Most strains of C. perfringens hydrolyze starch and produce proteolysins of milk, the key reactions that distinguish C. septicum (negative). Reactions to the other tests do not distinguish between the two.

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Clostridium septicum RapID ANA

The definitive identification of C. septicum can be made using a profile of biochemical reactions, as is contained in the RapID ANA strip (see photograph). The upper set of tubules are reactions before addition of reagents; the bottom set of reactions after reagents are added.The upper set of letter codes is used to read the reactions before addition of reagents; the lower set of labels indicate the tests to read following addition of reagents.Of all the reactions included, only ONPG and NAG in the upper set are positive.The biotype number derived from this profile of reactions, 014000 codes for Clostridium septicum, thus confirming the identification.

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It is important to establish a species identification of C. septicum in blood culture isolates because of its close association with carcinoma of the colon.View Page
Review 2

Citron DM. Appelbaum PC.: How far should a clinical laboratory go in identifying anaerobic isolates, and who should pay? Clinical Infectious Diseases. 16 Suppl 4:S435-8, 1993Identification of anaerobic bacteria in specimens from sites of infection due to mixed organisms can be time-consuming and expensive. Laboratories should limit anaerobic workups by testing only those specimens that have been properly collected and transported to the laboratory.Use of selective and differential media for initial processing can provide rapid and relevant information to the clinician. Anaerobes isolated from normally sterile sites and sites of serious infection should always be completely identified. Group-or genus-level identifications may suffice in other instances.The Bacteroides fragilis group of organisms should always be identified because of their virulence and resistance to many antimicrobial agents.Some of the other organisms that warrant identification include Clostridium septicum (associated with gastrointestinal malignancy); Clostridium ramosum, Clostridium innocuum, and Clostridium clostridioforme (which are resistant to antibiotics); Clostridium perfringens (a cause of myonecrosis and gas gangrene,potentially serious infection); anaerobic cocci (which may be resistant to metronidazole and clindamycin); and fusobacteria (which may be virulent and resistant to clindamycin and penicillin).

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The bacterial cells shown in the photograph were observed in a smear prepared from the colony shown before. Which of the following tests will help to affirm the identification of Staphylococcus aureus?View Page
S. milleri CO2

Enhanced growth under CO2 incubation is an additional clue to the identification of S. milleri.Note in the photograph the increased growth of the colonies grown on the plate incubated under CO2, compared to those incubated in ambient air (O2).

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Review 1

Piscitelli SC., Shwed J., Schreckenberger P., Danziger LH. Streptococcus milleri group: renewed interest in an elusive pathogen. European Journal of Clinical Microbiology & Infectious Diseases.11:491-8, 1992The following review examines the bacteriological characteristics, epidemiology, pathogenicity and antimicrobial susceptibility of the "Streptococcus milleri group". "Streptococcus milleri group" is a term for a large group of streptococci which includes Streptococcus intermedius, Streptococcus constellatus and Streptococcus anginosus.Usually considered commensals, these organisms are often associated with various pyogenic infections including cardiac, intra-abdominal, subcutaneous and central nervous system infections, particularly with the formation of abscesses.Organisms of the "Streptococcus milleri group" are often unrecognized pathogens due to the lack of uniformity in classifications and difficulties in microbiological identification. Penicillin G, cephalosporins, clindamycin and vancomycin all possess activity against these streptococci.Use of agents with poor activity may promote infections with "Streptococcus milleri group" and allow it to exhibit its pathogenicity. An understanding of these organisms may aid in their recognition and proper treatment.

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Beta hemolytic colonies grew from the blood culture bottle after 18 hours incubation (see photograph). The following tests would be helpful in making a preliminary identification:View Page
Thus, in follow-up to the previous discussion, the reaction shown in the photograph establishes the identification of a group A, beta hemolytic streptococcus.View Page
A Brown and Brenn gram stain was performed on one of the tissue biopsy specimens. Organisms were seen as shown in the photograph. Based on the history and the appearance of the bacteria, the most likely identification is:View Page
Shown in the photograph is a close-in view of the colony growth after 48 hours incubation. Possible presumptive identifications suggested by the colonies observed include:View Page
Listeria motility

Listeria monocytogenes is optimally motile at 25C; and is non-motile at 35-37C.Motility may be directly assessed by observing bacterial cells with a tumbling motion in a direct mount preparation.In soft motility agar, the identification can be made by observing for a thin, umbrella-like lateral extension of growth from the stab line (see photograph).

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The test(s) which may be performed to establish a presumptive differential identification between group B streptococci and L. monocytogenes is/are:View Page
In view of the feedback to the previous question, the clinical correlation does not seem to fit in this case. Most likely:View Page

Department of Transportation (DOT) & Federally Regulated Urine Specimen Collection Training
Five areas having prerequisites for proper collection

Regardless whether you are collecting a Federally Regulated or a Non-Federally Regulated urine drug screen, there are five areas which demand specific prerequisites or conditions prior to performing a proper collection. These are: Requirements for the collection site. Supplies needed to conduct a collection. Criteria that must be met by collectors. Complete and accurate documentation. Proper identification of the donor.We will explore each of these in more detail over the next several pages.

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Collection Supplies

As collector: You can process only ONE donor at a time. You may not act as the collector for anyone whom you immediately supervise unless no other qualified collector is immediately available. You can not collect your own urine specimen. You should have appropriate identification available should the donor request it. This identification is limited to your name and the collection company where you work. You are not required to show documentation of training unless requested by a DOT representative, state government representative, or an employer. You should keep a file of the names and telephone numbers of Designated Employee Representatives (DER) to contact about any problems or issues that may arise during the collection process.

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Acceptable forms of identification

One of the most important aspects of a urine drug screen collection is the correct identification of the donor. It is the responsibility of the donor to provide the collector appropriate identification upon arrival at the collection site.Acceptable forms of identification include: A photo identification such as a driver's license, an employee badge, or any other picture ID issued by either a federal, state, or local government agency. Identification made by an employer or a representative of the employer. In this latter case, the employer or employer representative can describe the donor to the suitability of the collector via a phone call.

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What if a self employed donor cannot produce photo identification?

There are rare situations in which the donor cannot produce proper identification, such as a self-employed individual. In these cases, the collector should make a note in the Remarks section of the CCF that the positive identification was not available. The individual is then asked to provide two items of identification bearing his or her signature. The collector then proceeds with the collection. When the donor signs the certification statement (pink copy of the CCF), the collector compares the signature on the CCF with the signature on the identification presented. If the signatures appear consistent, the collection process continues. If the signature on the CCF does not match the signatures on the identification presented, the collector must make an additional statement in the Remarks section noting that the signature identification is unconfirmed.

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Unacceptable forms of identification

Unacceptable forms of identification include: Identification by a co-worker. Identification by another employee also working in a safety sensitive position. Use of a single non-photo identification card such as a social security card, credit card, membership card, pay voucher, or voter registration card. Faxed or photocopies of identification documents.

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Positive identification must be obtained before collection

Remember!If the donor cannot produce positive identification, the collector must contact the employer or a designated employer representative (DER) to verify the identity of the donor. The collection must not proceed until positive identification is obtained.

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Steps for Typical Urine Collection

After a positive identification has been made, invite the donor into the area where the collection will be conducted. Be pleasant, but professional. Introduce yourself and generally explain the collection procedure. Be prepared to accommodate donors who do not speak English. Never argue with the donor or be judgmental. Always remember that you are a professional. Conduct yourself in that manner. Ask the donor to remove any unnecessary out clothing such as a coat, jacket, hat, etc., and to leave any briefcase, purse, or other personal belongings with the outer clothing. The donor may retain his or her wallet. If the donor asks for a receipt for any belongings left with the collector, the collector must provide one. Direct the donor to empty his or her pockets and display the items to ensure that no items are present that could be used to adulterate or dilute the specimen or be used as a substitute. If nothing is there, the donor may return the items to his or her pockets.

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Electrophoresis
Electrophoresis Equipment

In addition to the specimen sample, support medium and buffer for electrophoresis, a power supply, positive and negative electrodes, chamber, and identification or detection method are needed.The power supply is a source of constant voltage or current that provides energy to the electrodes. This drives the movement of the ions in the medium and results in the movement and separation of the molecules or solutes in the specimen. Control of current or voltage comes with the power source in order to make adjustments.The chamber is divided into two sections or has two reservoirs for the buffer and one electrode is placed in each. The support medium is laid over the chamber in such a way that it connects the two reservoirs. A lid or cover is placed over the chamber during electrophoresis.

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Uses of CE in Molecular Diagnostics

Molecular diagnostic techniques utilize CE extensively. Automation, microvolume sample, increased sensitivity, immediate detection, and the computerization provided by CE enhance the analysis of nucleic acids. A multiple fluorescence detection system available with CE is also valuable.CE analysis of short tandem repeat polymorphisms is used in forensics, parentage testing, bone marrow engraftment analysis and other identification assays. Other testing for diagnosis of genetic diseases, oncology studies and DNA sequencing frequently utilize CE. DNA sequencing uses CE for separation of nucleotides labeled with multiple colored fluorescence dyes; CE and these markers enable computerized determination of the nucleotide sequence of DNA segments.

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Erythrocyte Inclusions - Wright Stained Smears
More on Erythrocyte inclusions

The appearance, composition and associated physiology is specific for each type of inclusion. Identification and quantification of these inclusions is important because their presence may indicate an abnormality in the red cell system. Each of the inclusions listed above can be seen in more than one condition. There are erythrocyte inclusions specific to disorders which cannot be seen with either Wright-Giemsa stain or Perls' Prussian blue iron stain.

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Fundamentals of Molecular Diagnostics
Targets

Molecular based clinical diagnostic test methodologies differ according to the target of interest. For example, patients suspected of having different diseases will require the identification of different targets. These targets might be found in different cells of the body and may therefore require different specimens to provide the answers. Patient A suspected of having Disease 1-requires the identification of a target of missequenced DNA- might require specimen of whole blood Patient B suspected of having Disease 2-requires identification of a target of antibody production-methodology might require specimen of serum Using this specific approach of disease diagnosis based on unique target identification, tests can provide answers that are more rapid sensitive specific

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Overview

To aid in the diagnosis of disease or identification of infectious agents, clinical laboratorians use a variety of methodologies to assist them. Knowing what to look for, or the right question to ask, is vital to obtaining the correct answer. Many diseases and agents have unique causes. The cause of the condition then becomes the "target" to be identified and perhaps even quantified. For example: If Patient A is suspected of having disease X, and disease X requires treatment, it is necessary to prove that disease X exists within patient A. We must know something about what causes disease X; is disease X an antigen, a bacteria, a viral particle, a missequenced piece of DNA?Once the target of interest (in this case Disease X) has been identified, the clinical laboratorian can choose the methodology most appropriate to answering the question, "Does disease X exist within Patient A?"

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Human Genome

Much research has been conducted to identify the alphabet of the human cellular language otherwise known as the human genome. This identification or roadmap of the human genetic material has opened the door to the mainstreaming of molecular diagnostics within the clinical laboratory setting.While the mapping of the human genome project is complete, many times it is not necessary to be able to identify the entire sequence; rather, we can use the specific portion of the code that is unique to the disease or condition in question. These short portions of the genetic molecular sequence or oligonucleotides, can then be used as probes to seek out and detect or amplify the target sequence.

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Pre-analytical Variables

Pre-analytical variables are those that affect the specimen before the actual testing begins. Some of the pre-analytical variables to consider with molecular testing include those that are applicable to all clinical specimens but should be emphasized when discussing molecular methodologies; some of these include but are not limited to: Receipt of valid order Proper patient identification Proper venipuncture procedure for blood collection Use of correct anticoagulant Collection of correct specimen type (i.e.- plasma, serum, whole blood) Order of draw Proper storage Proper transport Procedures if there is a delay in testing and/or transport

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Which of the following are examples of pre-analytical variables that affect molecular methodologies?View Page
Advantages of Molecular Testing

Molecular methodologies offer numerous advantages to the clinical laboratory. These include:Sensitivity: Amplification methodologies are particularly useful in increasing the sensitivity of a methodology and useful in the identification of target molecules of interest that are only present in low concentrations. Specificity: Molecular methods minimize false positive test results by targeting the specific molecule of interest.Turn Around Time: In comparison with standard traditional culture methods, molecular methodologies usually offer better turn around times from receipt to result reporting.Application: broader application can be found with molecular methodologies such as infectious diseases, genetic testing, forensics, drug resistance, and tumor marker detection and monitoring.

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Hereditary Hemochromatosis
General Clinical Considerations

Hereditary hemochromatosis (HH) is frequently discovered only during management of associated illness or routine health evaluations. It has been estimated that only a small percentage of all affected persons are actually diagnosed. Individuals with HH may be symptomatic for several years prior to diagnosis and may have consulted multiple health care providers.Under-diagnosis of HH is thought to occur due to:• Lack of specificity of early signs and symptoms• Asymptomatic status of some patients until damage to organs and tissues has occurred• Confusion with liver disease due to other causes• Insufficient awareness and knowledge of HHEarly identification of persons with HH is essential to prevent serious and irreversible complications associated with severe iron overload. A classic triad of skin hyperpigmentation (bronzing), type 2 diabetes, and hepatic cirrhosis has long been recognized as evidence of advanced iron overload. However, persons with HH may present with a much wider variety of signs and symptoms, particularly if they are seen before significant iron accumulation has occurred. Age of presentation and disease severity are highly variable. A diagnosis of HH is based on laboratory evidence of iron overload, genetic mutations associated with HH, and presence of clinical signs and symptoms consistent with HH.(10)

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HIPAA Privacy and Security Regulations
Case Study: Physical SafeguardsYou are a supervisor of a health clinic. During orientation of a new employee, you instruct him to keep the door leading from a patient area to a computer work area locked at all times. On several occasions, he forgets to make sure the door is locked as he leaves. Which of the following are true regarding this situation?View Page
De-Identified Health Information

Health information is considered de-identified, if it cannot be used to identify an individual. Other terms for de-identified health information are: Anonymous, Aggregated, and Scrubbed.The Privacy Regulation details the specific individual information which needs to be removed from PHI for it to qualify as de-identified.When PHI is de-identified, it is no longer considered protected.De-identified health information should be used whenever individual patient identification is unnecessary.

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Case Study: De-identified Health Information. You work in a laboratory microbiology department which provides a local nursing home with information about the effectiveness of various antibiotics it uses to treat infections. You print the requested information, including complete patient identification, bacterial organisms identified, and their sensitivity to various antibiotics. What information should you provide to the nursing home?View Page

Introduction to Bioterrorism
Physical Security

 While at work, there are a few simple precautions you can take to help keep your lab as safe as possible: Keep security entrances locked. Don’t let others borrow your keys or access card. Don’t let someone enter the work area without proper identification. If you see someone in your area that is unknown to you, check their identification to make sure that they have permission to be in the area. Report any suspicious personnel or activities. Account for all supplies and specimens entering or leaving your facility. Report gaps in security measures such as broken windows, security lighting out.

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Introduction to the ABO Blood Group System
In what way are the ABO serum antibodies unique among blood group systems?View Page

Laws and Rules of the Florida Board of Clinical Laboratory Personnel
Description of Specialties (4)

Specialists in cytogenetics detect chromosome abnormalities and genetic disorders. Cytogenetics counseling may only be performed by an individual licenses in the cytogenetics specialty at the director level. Specialists in molecular genetics analyze DNA and RNA to find disease-related genotypes, mutations, and phenotypes in order to detect or predict disease and identify carriers. Specialists in histocompatibility test to determine tissue compatibility, prevent infections, and investigate and post-transplant problems. Techniques include blood typing, HLA typing, HLA antibody screening, disease markers, flow cytometry, crossmatching, HLA antibody identification, lymphocyte immunophenotyping, immunosuppressive drug assays, allogenic, isogeneic and autologous bone marrow processing and storage, mixed lymphocyte culture, stem cell culture, cell mediated assays, and assays for the presence of cytokines. Specialists in andrology and embryology examine gametes and embryos, including production, morphology, number, and motility, to address issues of fertility and infertility.

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Director Responsibilities

A clinical laboratory director is responsible for the overall operation and administration of the clinical laboratory. The director can delegate responsibilities to licensed supervisors, but is ultimately responsible for the following: Ensuring the employment of personnel who have the necessary education and experience and who are competent to perform the procedures and tasks that are assigned to them. Overseeing performance and reporting of accurate test results Verifying the laboratory's compliance with federal and state laws, rules, and regulations Delegating certain administrative duties to supervisors Being available for on-site, telephone, or e-mail consultation Ensuring that test methods and procedures, quality control, and verification methods provide reliable and accurate results Ensuring compliance with quality control and quality assurance programs Ensuring enrollment and active participation of the laboratory in a proficiency testing program, monitoring proficiency testing results, and implementing corrective action when necessary Assessing laboratory staffing needs and advising management when insufficient clinical laboratory personnel are employed Selecting which tests the laboratory offers and which employees may perform them Establishing and maintaining a patient identification system for the laboratory Establishing and maintaining accurate billing practices

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Medical Error Prevention
Which statement(s) are true about Root Cause Analysis?View Page
Which statement(s) describe potential causes of medical errors involving the blood bank?View Page
These statements describe ways laboratory professionals can prevent medical errors.View Page
Joint Commission Patient Safety Goals Joint Commission adopted national patient safety goals for healthcare organizations, including specific goals for laboratories. 2009 Laboratory Services National Patient Safety Goals These goals are directly quoted.View Page
American Society for Clinical Laboratory ScienceThe American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science, ASCLS, joins the leadership effort to prevent medical errors and increase patient safety.View Page
Near Misses

Near misses are also related to medical errors: Near misses are medical events that avert unwanted consequences.Someone or something identifies and corrects harmful influences before they cause adverse events.The medical community sometimes calls near misses “close calls.” For example, a transfusion is stopped when the nurse discovers that the identification number on a unit of blood does not match the unit number on the requisition. This is a near miss for the patient receiving a transfusion of incompatible blood. Near misses often provide important insight into new ways of preventing medical errors. In this case, a flaw in Blood Bank cross-checking systems is discovered so it can be prevented from causing a medical error.

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Factors that Contribute to Medical ErrorsView Page
Sources of Laboratory-Related ErrorsView Page
These statements describe sources of laboratory-related errors.View Page

Mycology: Hyaline and Dematiaceous Fungi
An Aspergillus species was recovered from a sputum specimen of a patient with X-ray evidence of fungal pneumonia. Microscopic examination did not permit a species identification. A small amount of vegetative mycelium was removed and a direct mount prepared. The features indicated by the red arrows in this image are associated with which Aspergillus species?View Page
A dermatophyte that produces thin-walled, two or three-celled macroconidia, and no microconidia, most likely belongs to the genus:View Page
A dull white fungus, turning mouse gray on maturity, was recovered from material aspirated from a bone cyst in the upper femur. Based on the microscopic appearance as seen in a lactophenol blue mount of a portion of the colony, the most likely identification is:View Page
The fungus illustrated in this photomicrograph of a lactophenol blue-stained preparation was recovered from skin scrapings of a patient with tinea pedis. The most likely identification is:View Page
A presumptive identification of the four genera of slower growing pathogenic dematiaceous molds can be made by observing specific types of conidiation. Match the names of the species of dematiaceous pathogenic fungi with the corresponding microscopic features illustrated in the photomicrographs:View Page
The multi-celled conidia of this dematiaceous mold are divided into cells by what are called distosepta (pseudosepta), indicating that the individual cells are surrounded by a sac-like wall that is distinct from the outer cell wall of the conidium. The identification of this mold is:View Page
Saprophytic Cladosporium species may be difficult to differentiate from Cladosporium trichoides (Xylohypha bantianum) in culture as both produce chains of conidia separated by distinct scars or dysjuncters. Each of the following characteristics of Cladosporium trichoides are helpful in separating the two except:View Page
The dematiaceous conidium illustrated in this photomicrograph was obtained from a tiny portion of dark colony that grew to maturity in six days. Spores incubated in a saline mount for four hours developed germ tubes from both terminal cells. The features observed confirm the identification of:View Page
The dimorphic fungus that may produce black, yeast-like colonies after prolonged incubation at 37°C is:View Page

Mycology: Yeasts and Dimorphic Pathogens
The colonies growing on the surface of this brain-heart infusion with blood agar plate were "converted" from a mold colony suspected of being Histoplasma capsulatum by incubating a subculture at 37°C for 5 days. The yeast forms that must be identified in mounts made from one of these colonies to confirm the identification are:View Page
Match the names of each of the yeast species with its most likely colony morphology as seen in the images on the right.View Page
Match the names of each of the yeast species listed with its corresponding appearance when grown in cornmeal agar, as seen in the images.View Page
Match the names of each of the species of yeast listed with its associated phenotypic property that is helpful in establishing a species identification.View Page
Arrange in sequence the steps that should be taken to make a definitive identification of Cryptococcus neoformans.View Page
The colonies shown in this photograph were grown on Guizotia abyssinica (bird seed) agar at 30°C for 72 hours. The most likely identification is:View Page
The forms seen in this photomicrograph, produced from a light inoculum of an unknown yeast colony incubated in rabbit plasma at 35°C for 2 hours, leads to the presumptive identification of:View Page
This photomicrograph is an acid-fast stained smear prepared from a yeast colony growing on ascospore agar. A helmet-shaped, red-staining, acid fast yeast cell is seen in the center of view at the tip of the arrow, against the background, blue-staining blastoconidia. The presumptive identification of Hansenula anomala was made. Predisposing conditions that may indicate that this isolate is more than a contaminant include:View Page
Illustrated in this photomicrograph of a lactophenol blue preparation of a urine sediment is a cluster of yeast cells that were presumptively identified as Cryptococcus species. Further characteristics that may assist in confirming this identification are:View Page
This photomicrograph is a representative field of a Wright-Giemsa-stained bone marrow aspirate in which a pair of budding yeast cells is seen centrally (arrows). Based on the appearance of these yeast cells, what other test would you expect to be positive?View Page
A yeast identification system gave a biotype number for an unknown isolate that did not differentiate between Candida tropicalis and Candida parapsilosis. This isolate could be identified as C. parapsilosis in a cornmeal agar preparation if it produced:View Page
Each of the following is considered to be a virulence factor in Cryptococcus neoformans except:View Page

Normal Peripheral Blood Cells
Differentiating Bands from Segs

When viewing a confusing cell, it is helpful to focus through several planes, taking special note of overall chromatin structure, appearance or presence of any filaments, and general cytoplasmic characteristics.For example, here we see a neutrophilic cell that is folded, making exact identification difficult.However, due to the thickness of the nucleus and the absence of a filament, we would classify it as a band.

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Nucleus of the Band Neutrophil

The nucleus of a band neutrophil is sausage or band-shaped (U-shaped).Sometimes it appears folded or twisted, thus making identification more difficult.The nucleus stains a deep purplish-blue color, and the nuclear chromatin appears condensed, coarse, and clumped.

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OSHA Chemical Hygiene (updated 2007)
Identification

Name of the chemical, indicated by words or symbols. Information about the company that made or imported the chemical: Company name Address Emergency phone number Physical hazards that are associated with the chemical: Reactivity Flammability

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Identification

Like the manufacturer's label, the first section lists specific information about the chemical, including: Chemical name Name under which it is shipped Manufacturer's name, address, and phone number

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Identification (continued)

Further information: Manufacturer product number An emergency phone number CAS identification number The DOT shipping name and hazard class The chemical family name and synonyms The chemical's formula and molecular weight

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Packaging and Shipping Infectious Materials
Category B Definition, Shipping Name, and Identification Number

A category B infectious substance is not in a form generally capable of causing permanent disability or life-threatening or fatal disease in otherwise healthy humans or animals when exposure to it occurs. The proper shipping name and Identification number is:Biological substance, Category B, UN 3373

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Category A Identification Numbers

The proper shipping names and identification numbers for category A infectious substances are:Infectious substances, affecting animals, UN2900Infectious substances, affecting humans, UN2814

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Labeling a Package Containing a Category A Substance

Packages that contain category A substances must exhibit these labels.Proper shipping name and UN number(Category A label) or Hazard class 6 infectious substance label that includes this statement:In case of damage or leakage, immediately notify public health authority. In the US, notify the CDC 1-800-232-0124 UN package certification markOrientation arrows (if greater than 50 mL)Contact information (Shipper or Consignee Identification)The contact person (usually the shipper), referred to as the "responsible person" by IATA, must be someone who can be reached 24 hours a day, seven days a week (24/7) and can answer questions about the content of the package. The 24/7 number must reach that person directly and not a pager or answering machine/service. If the contact person that you are listing is the person receiving the specimen, be certain that the person is aware you are listing him/her as the contact person and has consented to it.

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Security Awareness

A category A infectious substance is in a form that is capable of causing permanent disability or life-threatening or fatal disease in otherwise healthy humans or animals when exposure to it occurs. Exposure would occur if the substance were released from its protective packaging and a human or animal came into contact with it. Therefore, it is critical that a category A infectious substance does not end up in the hands of an unauthorized individual who may purposely or unknowingly release the substance from its protective packaging and endanger humans or animals. Being aware of the people that you interact with in the process of packaging and sending category A substances is vital to the safety of the transport and prevention of a health disaster. An outsider with limited access and system knowledge could constitute a threat, but be aware that insiders could also be a threat, e.g., a disgruntled employee or a person who is angry with his or her supervisor or job or the government. Anyone desiring to do harm could potentially seize the opportunity to steal a hazardous material.Follow these precautionary procedures: When you are questioned about an infectious substance that you are packaging for shipment, it is important that you know the person that is asking AND that he or she has a need to know. If you do not know the person and if you are not aware that the person needs to know about the substance that is being shipped, do not answer the questions. You could refer him or her to your supervisor. Watch for unusual behavior. Secure the package until it is picked up. Check the identification of the courier who will be picking up the package. Use an intralaboratory chain of custody procedure if the specimens are tranferred within the facility or system. Track the package once it has been sent to be sure it arrives safely. Notify the Responsible Official or federal authority if the package does not arrive at its destination.

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Parasitology Review
The avoidance of laboratory diagnosis techniques that utilize water is recommended for the identification of which of these parasites? View Page
Serologic methods have been developed to identify which of these parasites?View Page
Match each parasite listed here with the appropriate laboratory technique that may be used for its identification: Each answer may only be used once.View Page
Which type(s) of smear(s) listed here is/are recommended to speciate Plasmodium species?View Page
Recovered from a stool sample, this suspicious form measures 6 µm by 8 µm.View Page
Recovered from a sputum sample, this suspicious form measures 112 µm by 55 µm.View Page
This parasite may inhabit the small intestine or take up residence in the bile ducts. It typically measures 145 µm by 75 µm.View Page
This intestinal parasite, which measures 5 µm, is usually not visible in samples processed using standard permanent stains. Special staining, as indicated by the coloring here, is helpful in its identification.View Page
This suspicious form, seen on a scotch tape prep, measures 54 µm by 28 µm.View Page
With which of the following conditions is this suspicious form associated?View Page
Match each parasite name listed below with its corresponding picture:View Page
Match each parasite pictured with its respective classification:View Page
The rod-shaped structures that are believed to function as a food source for select amebic cysts and contain RNA are known as:View Page
Match each group of helminths listed with its respective key characteristic that aids in group identification:View Page
Match each parasite listed here with its respective classification:View Page
Match each parasite listed here with its respective common name:View Page
Arrange the parasites listed here in order based on relative size from largest to smallest:View Page
The small mass of chromatin located in the amebic parasites is termed:View Page
Match each parasite listed here with the key characteristic that aids in its identification:View Page
Match each parasite with the key characteristic that aids in its identification: (Each answer may only be used once.)View Page
The presence of two sporocysts each containing four banana-shaped sporozoites is characteristic of the oocysts of which of the following organisms?View Page
A 12 year old female went to her doctor for her yearly back-to-school check-up. She was in good health and was asymptomatic at the time of the examination. Due to the increased incidence of parasites in the area, the doctor ordered a stool for parasite examination as part of the routine physical testing. Multiple suspicious forms, measuring approximately 9 µm each were seen. Which of the following is most likely the identification of these forms?View Page
A 31 year old female with a known history of amebiasis, presented to her physician complaining of bloody diarrhea and fever. Previous patient history revealed that she lives in substandard conditions. Parasitic examination of the woman's stool revealed this suspicious form that measures 20 µm. The identification of this form is:View Page
A 29 year old male steak house owner from Arizona presented to his doctor complaining of weight loss, abdominal pain and diarrhea. Patient history revealed that the man eats all of his meals at his restaurant and his favorite meat is rare sirloin steak. The man also noted that he had recently been on anti-parasitic medication. The doctor ordered a stool for parasitic examination. These two suspicious forms were seen. The patient is most likely suffering from an infection with:View Page
A stool was received in the laboratory for parasitic examination on a 49 year old female who just returned from missionary work in numerous third world countries around the world. The patient had been suffering from mild diarrhea over the past two weeks. These two suspicious forms were seen. Form 1 measures a mere 6 µm whereas form 2 measures 35 µm. Label these two forms:View Page
I reside in red blood cells where I assume these characteristic appearances:View Page
I measure 65 µm in length and am found in stool.View Page
I may be found in blood or in lymph nodes.View Page
I am found in stool and measure 45 µm.View Page
I am found in blood.View Page
I reside inside of macrophages.View Page
I am found in stool as well as in duodenal contents. I measure 15 µm in length.View Page
Match each amebic cyst with its respective name:View Page

Phlebotomy
Discussion

When the results on Mr. John Ready were called to the nurse, she was very surprised that the result of his CBC was normal. The nurse explained to the lab tech that Mr. John Ready had a known diagnosis of lower GI bleeding. His hemoglobin had been very low for the past 24 hours because of the internal bleeding, and she thought it was very surprising that his hemoglobin had normalized so quickly without having received a blood transfusion. Mr. Ready’s doctor decided the patient should be redrawn to ensure a correct result. The nurse further questioned if the phlebotomist could possibly have drawn the wrong patient because earlier that day Mr. Ready had been moved to room 831, and room 825 was presently occupied by a patient named Walter Redding. If Julie had checked the patient’s armband, she would have realized that the patient in 825 was the wrong patient.Relevant topics:Importance of patient ID, Patient identification continued, Specimen labeling, Specimen labeling Continued, Blood bank specimens

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Patient Identification continued

Never rely on the patient name on the door or above the bed. Patients are frequently moved from room to room.

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Specimem labeling continued

Proper labeling generally includes:Patient’s first and last nameHospital identification numberDate & timePhlebotomist initialsYour institution may provide bar coded computer generated labels that contain this information.

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Patient Identification

Make sure the name, medical record number, and date of birth on your order/requisition match those on the patient’s armband.Verify the patient’s identity by politely asking them to state their full name.

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Introduction

Blood is normally sterile. Any bacterial growth in the bloodstream is abnormal, and is an important cause of fever.Blood culture means the incubation of blood in appropriate media to allow growth and identification of bacteria or other organisms that may be present in a patient’s bloodstream. Blood cultures are performed on febrile patients to identify and treat bloodborne organisms with the most appropriate antibiotic.

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Causes of labeling errors

Labeling errors may be caused by: Failure to follow proper patient identification procedure.Failure to label the specimen completely and immediately after collection.

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Reading Gram Stained Direct Smears
Cellular elements

The Gram stain reaction and appearance can be used to identify most cellular material seen in a direct smear. Identification of cellular elements present in a direct clinical smear is important because most of these elements play an important role in the disease process. For example, the quality of a sputum sample can be assessed by determining the relative numbers of squamous epithelial cells and polymorphonuclear leukocytes (segmented neutrophils) present.

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Identification of bacteria

Identification of bacteria in direct smears may be of lifesaving importance. For example, a rapid diagnosis of bacterial meningitis, made after examining a gram stained smear of the patient's cerebrospinal fluid, allows the physician to begin treatment immediately. The appearance of bacteria on gram stained smears is suggestive of a certain species, but identification may not be made on the basis of the stain alone. An exception to this rule is the presence of gram negative intracellular diplococci from a male urogenital specimen, which is presumptive identification of Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In addition, culture results can be correlated with the direct smear report.

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Reading Gram Stained Smears From Cultures
Summary

It is important to note the Gram stain reaction, shape, and cellular arrangement when examining culture smears. This information may be useful in making a presumptive identification. The following nine screens contain ungraded practice questions covering the material that has been covered so far.

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Culture Smears: Importance and Reporting

The culture smear is used to determine the staining characteristic, size, shape and cellular arrangement of the unknown organism. This data helps the microbiologist to decide on additional culture and identification methods. By correlating the Gram stain reaction, size, shape, and cellular arrangement of the organism with colony morphology and growth requirements, the microbiologist may be able to tentatively identify the organism. This information may help the physician to optimize treatment until definitive culture and antibiotic susceptibility results become available. Gram stain reaction and bacterial shape must be included in the report.The cellular arrangement is usually not included in the report since it may vary depending on the culture medium (liquid or solid) used to isolate the organism. The following 12 screens contain additional ungraded practice questions pertinent to the material covered.

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The process of microorganism identification includes: (Choose ALL of the correct answers)View Page
Culture, Isolation, and Identification of Microorganisms

The process of culture, isolation and identification of microorganisms is basic to medical microbiology. When a culture shows signs of growth, the process of identification includes examining the following characteristics:appearance of the colonies in the culture mediumstaining reactionappearance of stained organismssizeshapearrangement of bacterial cellsThis type of preliminary identification may help the physician to initiate the appropriate antibiotic treatment.

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Red Cell Disorders: Peripheral Blood Clues to Nonneoplastic Conditions
Reticulocyte identification

Reticulocytes are red blood cells prematurely released from the bone marrow. On a Wright-Giemsa stained blood smear, they appear as polychromatic macrocytes. Their presence in the peripheral blood may suggest hemolysis or bleeding. Their presence is expressed as a percentage of the red cell count: newly born= 3-7%; up to one week of age=1-3%; >one week =0.3-1.8%. Automated or manual methods may be used to enumerate reticulocytes. In clinical context, retics must be separated from debris, precipated stain, Pappenheimer bodies, Howell-Jolly bodies, and Heinz bodies.

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Red Cell Morphology
Size Variation

Red blood cells can vary in size (diameter/volume) from smaller than normal, microcytes, to larger than normal, macrocytes. When red cells of normal size, microcytes and macrocytes are present in the same field, the term anisocytosis is used.Since the purpose of this unit is to acquaint you with the appearance (identification) of abnormal red cell morphology, percentages of abnormalities present will not be considered. It is important to be aware that rating red cell morphology for the purpose of reporting it is a skill which must be learned before you are able to complete this aspect of a differential count.

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Conditions Associated with Spherocytes

Examples of conditions in which spherocytes can be seen include hereditary spherocytosis and immune hemolytic anemias (i.e., ABO incompatibility). Spherocytes can also form in conditions where there has been a direct physical or chemical injury to the cells. An example would be a smear from an individual who has suffered severe burns. In hereditary spherocytosis, a condition where spherocytes are numerous, the MCHC value will be at the upper limits of normal, or about 36. The identification of spherocytes on the smear of a patient with hereditary spherocytosis can aid significantly in the diagnosis of the disorder. In Artifactual spherocytes can appear when blood is stored for a prolonged period of time.

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Examples of Stomatocytes

Examples of stomatocytes can be seen in the center of this slide and to the left of the center. Conditions in which a significant number of in vivo stomatocytes can be seen include hereditary stomatocytosis, neoplastic disorders, liver disease and Rh null disease. The largest numbers of in vivo stomatocytes are seen in hereditary stomatocytosis and their identification is necessary to make the diagnosis.

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The identification of which of the following abnormal forms may contribute significantly to specific clinical diagnosis:View Page

Routine Venipuncture
Proper Patient Identification

In order to prevent errors that affect specimen quality, the phlebotomist must pay close attention to detail during the entire venipuncture process. All steps of the phlebotomy procedure must be included for every venipuncture. This will help to maintain specimen integrity during the collection, transport, and handling of blood specimensProperly identify the patient every timeThe phlebotomist is responsible for correctly identifying the patient using two unique patient identifiers that include the patient's complete first and last name, medical record or hospital number, and/or date of birth. The patient location or room number, bed tag and chart are not reliable forms of identification and should not be used for patient identification. Every patient must verbalize his/her name to the phlebotomist, if able to do so. It is unacceptable for the phlebotomist to ask the patient to confirm his/her name that was verbalized by the phlebotomist. For example, the phlebotomist should say, "Would you please tell me (or spell) your name and birthdate. " The phlebotomist should NOT say, "Are you Sally Brown, and is your birthdate June 1, 1925?" If this is a hospital inpatient, check the information on the patient's wristband and confirm that the name and hospital number or medical record number matches the patient information on the test order. Never rely on identification attached to a bed, chart or door. NEVER draw a patient whose identity is not established or is in conflict. If there is a discrepancy, the phlebotomist must STOP and seek assistance to have the discrepancy resolved before proceeding with the venipuncture. If this is an outpatient that does not have a wristband, ask the patient (or guardian/caregiver) to state the patient's date of birth. A picture ID, such as a driver's license, can also be used for positive patient identification.

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What is a Hidden Error?

Hidden errors are those that cannot be detected or corrected by the laboratory analyst prior to testing. Most often these errors can be prevented by the phlebotomist following correct venipuncture procedure for every procedure, every time.Hidden errors include hemoconcentration, incorrect order of draw, and (the most serious of all errors) misidentification of patient or specimens. Because these errors often are unknown, the analyst may inadvertently report erroneous patient results which could be harmful to the safety and well-being of the patient. Condition What is it? How does it happen? What is the Result? Hemoconcentration Blood pools at site of venipuncture Tourniquet is applied for a prolonged period of time Test results may be inaccurate because blood components move between blood and tissues Pouring Blood between tubes Mixing contents of two or more tubes Removing top of tube to combine contents of one tube with another Inaccurate test results due to over or under dilution or incorrect anticoagulant Clots form due to lack of mixing Patient may have to be redrawn Incorrect patient identification and incorrect specimen labeling Using the wrong name to label a specimen Failure to positively identify EVERY patient using 2 unique identifiers BEFORE beginning venipuncture Failure to label EVERY specimen in the presence of the patient Failure to concentrate fully on the task Results reported to caregiver for wrong patient Compromises patient care; may be life-threatening

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Which of the following methods could Julie have used to positively identify the patient?View Page
Scenario Conclusion

When the results on Mr. John Ready were called to the nurse, she was very surprised that the result of his CBC was normal. The nurse explained to the laboratory technologist that Mr. John Ready had a known diagnosis of lower GI bleeding. His hemoglobin had been very low for the past 24 hours because of the internal bleeding, and she thought it was very surprising that his hemoglobin had normalized so quickly without having received a blood transfusion. Mr. Ready’s doctor decided the patient should be redrawn to ensure a correct result. The nurse further questioned if the phlebotomist could possibly have drawn the wrong patient because earlier that day Mr. Ready had been moved to room 831, and room 825 was presently occupied by a patient named Walter Redding. If Julie had properly identified the patient by asking him to state his name and then checking the name and identification number on the wristband, she would have realized that the patient in 825 was the wrong patient.

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The Disappearing Antibody: A Case Study
Using probability (p) values

The p value is a statistical tool that increases the confidence that an antibody has been identified with a scientifically acceptable level of uncertainty (0.05). As applied to antibody identification, it is computed using Fisher's exact test. Tidbit: This is the same Fisher who helped developed the Fisher-Race theory of Rh inheritance.The p value is calculated using the number of cells that are positive and negative with the patient's plasma. Calculating p values is beyond the scope of this case study but basic understanding of p values at the conceptual level is covered.

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Antibody identification checklist

To improve the quality of conclusions when identifying antibodies, a checklist is a simple quality control tool to increase transfusion safety. If a specific antibody pattern cannot be identified with acceptable confidence, or if significant serologic or non-serologic data are inconsistent and cannot be rationalized, further testing will be required.Before concluding that the investigation is complete, unless not applicable, mentally reply to each question in the checklist. If any answer is no, has it been resolved? Antibody Identification Checklist Yes/No/NA 1. For a single antibody, does the reaction pattern fit only one antibody specificity? 2. Is antibody specificity consistent with the results of the initial antibody screen? 3. Are reaction phases consistent with antibody specificity? 4. If multiple antibodies are present, can all reactions be explained by the antibody combination? 5. If the autocontrol is negative, are patient red cells negative for the corresponding antigen(s)? 6. Have additional possible antibodies been excluded by selected red cells? 7. Can all variable reaction strengths be explained? 8. If tested, are antigen-negative donor cells compatible by antiglobulin crossmatch? 9. If there are data that do not fit antibody specificity or if there are results that are improbable, are they explainable? 10. Have all results and conclusions been systematically evaluated for consistency?

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Using p values in antibody identification

When p values are calculated for antibody identifications, we think of the null hypothesis as meaning, "the relative proportions of one variable (panel cell being antigen-positive) are independent of the second variable (patient's plasma reacting with the cell). In other words, the results could be due to another cause (different antibody, combination of antibodies, or spurious reactions), not the antibody that we have identified as being probable.Therefore, a p value of 0.05 can be interpreted as meaning that the same results produced by another antibody or cause would be expected to occur by chance alone only one in 20 times (5% of the time), given the number of cells tested. By scientific tradition, this is an acceptable level of uncertainty.A p value of 0.05 does not mean that we have identified the correct antibody.

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Summary

This case study presents a scenario in which a patient had an unexpected antibody that disappeared after he was transfused with 2 units of unmatched group O Rh negative RBC. The patient developed a positive DAT with MFA but an antibody identification using the post-transfusion red cell eluate was inconclusive, making the antibody unidentifiable. Fortunately, the patient improved and further transfusion was not required. Ultimately, the patient's antibody was identified as anti-Jka, with a second antibody to a low frequency antigen (Radin) also unexpectedly present.The case illustrates the risks involved in using unmatched blood.

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Antibody investigation

Immediate post-transfusion antibody identification results Cell Rh Rhesus Kell Duffy Kidd MNSs P Lewis Lu Results1 Results2 C D E c e Cw K k Kpa Fya Fyb Jka Jkb M N S s P1 Lea Leb Lua Gel IAT Gel IAT 1 rr 0 0 0 + + 0 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 0 + + + +S + 0 0 0 w+ 2 rr 0 0 0 + + 0 0 + 0 0 + + + 0 + + + +S + 0 0 0 0 3 rr 0 0 0 + + 0 0 + 0 + 0 0 + 0 + + 0 + 0 + 0 0 0 4 r"r 0 0 + + + 0 0 + 0 + + 0 + 0 + 0 + + + 0 0 0 0 5 R2R2 0 + + + 0 0 + 0 0 + 0 + + + 0 + 0 + 0

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Antibody identification (2 weeks post-transfusion)

Fortunately, the patient's condition stabilized and additional transfusions were not required. Two weeks later, new patient specimens were drawn for antibody studies. Antibody identification results Cell Rh Rhesus Kell Duffy Kidd MNSs P Lewis Lu Results Cell C D E c e Cw K k Kpa Fya Fyb Jka Jkb M N S s P1 Lea Leb Lua Gel IAT* 1 rr 0 0 0 + + 0 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 0 + + + +S + 0 0 1+ 1 2 rr 0 0 0 + + 0 0 + 0 + 0 + + 0 + + + +S + 0 0 w+ 2 3 rr 0 0 0 + + 0 0 + 0 + + 0 + 0 + + 0 + 0 + 0 0 3 4 r"r 0 0 + + + 0 0 + 0 + + 0 + 0 + 0 + + + 0 0 0 4 5 R2R2 0 + + + 0 0 + 0 0 + + + + + 0 + 0 + 0

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Using the guidelines in the Antibody Exclusion Protocol, which antibodies are possible (have not been excluded) using this panel? Select all that apply.Antibody identification results CellRhRhesusKellDuffyKiddMNSsPLewisLuResultsCell CDEceCwKkKpaFyaFybJkaJkbMNSsP1LeaLebLuaGel IAT* 1rr000++00+0+0+00++++S+001+1 2rr000++00+0+0++0++++S+00w+2 3rr000++00+0++0+0++0+0+003 4r"r00+++00+0++0+0+0+++0004 5R2R20+++00+00+++++0+0+0+0w+5 6View Page
Antigen phenotyping

A standard follow-up to antibody identification is to antigen phenotype: Patient's red cells (expecting them to lack the corresponding antigen) Donor red cells (in this case, those transfused before an antibody was identified, or, more typically, to find suitable antigen-negative donors to crossmatch prior to transfusion).If you had wanted to type the patient for any antigens at this point in the investigation (2-weeks post-transfusion), which specimen would you have used? Think about any antigen typing problems and how to overcome them before proceeding to the next page.

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Which of the following antibodies in this scenario could explain all reactions by itself?Antibody identification results CellRhRhesusKellDuffyKiddMNSsPLewisLuResultsCell CDEceCwKkKpaFyaFybJkaJkbMNSsP1LeaLebLuaGel IAT* 1rr000++00+0+0+00++++S+001+1 2rr000++00+0+0++0++++S+00w+2 3rr000++00+0++0+0++0+0+003 4r"r00+++00+0++0+0+0+++0004 5R2R20+++00+00+++++0+0+0+0w+5 6R2R20++<View Page

The Urine Microscopic: Microscopic Analysis of Urine Sediment
Recognition and Identification

Recognizing and identifying casts is an essential part of the urine microscopic examination. The table below summarizes the different type of casts and their clinical significance. Type Condition Hyaline 0-2/LPF is normal; increase in fever, diuretic therapy, exercise or stress. Glomerulonephritis Pyelonephritis Chronic renal disease White Blood Cell Renal Infection Inflammation of the nephron Red Blood Cell Bleeding in the nephron Glomerulonephritis Strenuous exercise Epithelial Cell Renal tubular damage Coarsely Granular Urinary stasis Gomerular and tubular disease Finely Granular Further degeneration of coarsely granular Amyloid disease Chronic renal disease Fatty Degenerative tubular disease Broad Extreme stasis of urine flow Renal failure

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Renal Epithelial Fragments

Renal epithelial fragments of collecting duct origin are composed of three or more cuboidal cells. These fragments indicate a more severe form of renal tubule injury with basement membrane disruption. Proximal and distal convoluted tubule renal epithelial cells are not found in fragment form. In addition to the indication of severe tubule damage, proper identification of these fragments is important to avoid a false positive diagnosis of low-grade transitional cell carcinoma. Transitional cell carcinoma is a type of cancer seen in 71% of cases of malignant tumors of the ureter.

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Abnormal Crystals

There are a number of crystals which are seen less frequently but are of considerable significance when they appear. Their presence should be verified by further testing and confirmed by a supervisor or pathologist before reporting the results. Polarized light can aid in crystal identification.

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Specimen #5 - Female Child

The results of the Clinitest are abnormal, but can be reported. Because this specimen was from a child, the Clinitest was performed routinely even though not indicated by the results of the Multistix. Due to the fact that the Multistix is specific for glucose and was negative, therefore a nonglucose reducing substance is present. Further confirmatory testing such as thin-layered chromatography is needed for identification of the non-glucose reducing sugar.

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Identification of Crystals

Identification of crystals found in the urine sediment requires knowledge of the urinary pH. Large crystals are identifiable under low power. High power magnification is required for smaller crystals. Most crystals can be identified by morphology alone. Urine pH and reagent strip results can provide supporting information. If further examination is necessary birefringence and solubility characteristics should be performed.

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Introduction

In previous exercises we have examined the formed elements of the urine sediment including casts, cells, crystal and miscellaneous structures. If the urine sediment contains only a few elements, identification may be simple. However, a sediment may contain an overwhelming number of elements. If this is the case, there are biochemical tests to aid in differentiation of structures.

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Variations in White Cell Morphology - Granulocytes
Identification of white cell morphological changes are important because:View Page
Importance of Recognition

It is important to be able to recognize the presence of these changes and then identify them for several reasons:If the changes are pathological, their identification may aid the physician in diagnosing a specific condition.If the changes are not pathological, their identification alerts the physician to the fact that the changes are present, thus avoiding a possible misdiagnosis.If reactive, it indicates that although the cells are functioning normally, they are reacting to a stimulus. Indicating the presence of such cells may aid in determining the diagnosis or monitoring the course of disease once a diagnosis has been made.

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Auer Rods

Auer rods are red staining, needle-like bodies seen in the cytoplasm of myeloblasts, and/or progranulocytes in leukemia. Auer rods are cytoplasmic inclusions which result from an abnormal fusion of the primary (azurophilic) granules. Single or multiple Auer rods may be seen in the cytoplasm of a cell. If more than one is present, they are frequently close together and may even be overlapping. Their identification is very important because, if found, they can confirm the presence of myeloblasts indicating the presence of a myeloid (non-lymphoblastic) leukemia. They can also be seen in myeloid blast crisis in chronic granulocytic leukemia. Auer rods are never seen in lymphoblasts. This differentiation is important because the treatment of lymphoblastic and myeloblastic leukemia are different. Auer Rods are always classified as pathological.

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White Cell and Platelet Disorders: Peripheral Blood Clues to Nonneoplastic Conditions
Criteria for evaluation of white blood cells and platelets

In most clinical hematology laboratories, an initial blood count is performed by an electronic instrument. Some of these instruments also produce a differential blood count, and a platelet count. Instruments that provide a 3-part differential indicate the percentage of neutrophils, lymphocytes, and a mixed field group that includes monocytes, eosinophils, basophils, immature and atypical cells. Thus, the atypical cells shown in the photograph would be counted as mixed cells and a smear review would be needed to make an identification. Instruments providing a 5-part differential count include monocytes and eosinophils. In cases where the mixed cell count is high, or there are other indications that atypical cells may be present, a hematologist's review of the smear is indicated.

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The smudge cells pictured in the photograph may be found in each of the following situations except:View Page


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