Subscriber Login   Users   Administrators
Online CE, compliance, and document control for clinical and histology laboratories

Drug Information and Courses from MediaLab, Inc.

These are the MediaLab courses that cover Drug and links to relevant pages within the course.

Learn more about laboratory continuing education for medical technologists to earn CE credit for AMT, ASCP, NCA, and state license renewal and recertification. Or get information about laboratory safety and compliance courses that deliver cost-effective OSHA safety training and continuing education to your laboratory's employees.



Antinuclear Antibody Testing: Methods and Pattern Interpretation
Antinuclear Antibody Test

The antinuclear antibody test (ANA) is a test used to screen for the presence of autoantibodies that are directed toward components in the nucleus of the cell. Clinicians use the ANA test to assess the likelihood that a given patient has a SARD. The results of the ANA test alone are not diagnostic for the SARD. The patient must also have clinical evidence of the disease as well. Because the early clinical presentation for many of the SARDs are nonspecific, the results of the ANA test and subsequent follow-up testing are key pieces to making the correct diagnosis.Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is the most prevalent disease in this group; however, the ANA assay is not the primary laboratory test for RA. Instead, the test for RA looks for the presence of rheumatoid factor (RF) or more recently, cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies (anti-CCP).For the other diseases in the SARD group, especially SLE and SSc, the results of the ANA test can be useful in determining a correct diagnosis. The utility of the ANA test is to detect the antibodies early in the disease process.The ANA results in conjunction with clinical presentation give the clinician solid evidence to intervene with an appropriate treatment. Studies have shown that once treatment is started, the formation of new antibodies slows or even halts.(Ref3)Currently there are no cures for the SARDs. Treatments primarily focus on keeping the patient comfortable and the immune response in check. Treatments can vary from non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, to immuno-suppressive drugs, to stem cell transplants. Individual treatment is often dependent on the severity of the disease and the response to the selected drug regimen.

View Page

Authentic and Spurious Causes of Thrombocytopenia
Treatment for ITP

Treatment guidelines recommend that patients receive treatment if they have any of the following: Significant bleeding risk <20 x 109/L platelets and moderate bleeding <10 x 10 9/L platelets with no bleeding symptomsCorticosteroids are effective treatments for 50 - 80% of individuals with either acute or chronic ITP. Even with a reduction or discontinuation of corticosteroid treatment, remission can be maintained.Anti-D immunoglobulin, administered intravenously, may be an effective treatment for Rh-positive children or adults diagnosed with acute or chronic ITP. Anti-D immunoglobulin forms red blood cell complexes that block the destruction of platelets. This treatment cannot be used for patients who are Rh-negative or who have undergone a splenectomy. When a patient is refractory to the above treatments, other treatment possibilities include thrombopoietic drugs to stimulate the megakaryoblast or Rituximab, a treatment that targets CD 20-positive B-cells.Splenectomy may be a last resort treatment for chronic ITP sufferers if their platelet counts are below 30 x 109/ L or if symptoms warrant it. In ITP, antibodies develop that coat the platelets. The spleen produces macrophages whose Fc receptors recognize and destroy these antibody-coated platelets. Removing the spleen would decrease platelet destruction, but it is a last resort since the immunologic function of the spleen would also be lost.

View Page
Drug-induced thrombocytopenia

Some drugs may cause thrombocytopenia in a small number of patients that take them. Drugs that have been implicated in development of thrombocytopenia include heparin, quinidine, quinine, and sulfonamides, among others. Thrombocytopenia is most likely the result of an antibody forming against the drug. This antibody binds to a glycoprotein on the platelet and then the platelet is taken out of circulation by the reticuloendothelial (RE) system. The platelet count will rise once the drug is discontinued.

View Page

Cardiac Biomarkers
Risk Stratification

Risk stratification in cardiac disease is the use of biomarker assays and other diagnostic testing of an individual with disease to predict risk of future disease and cardiac events. The results are also utilized in treatment and drug intervention plans. Studies conducted recently use multiple markers for risk stratification for patients with CHF, ACS, and previous AMIs. Multiple markers (BNP, NT-ProBNP, cardiac troponins, and hs-CRP) may be used in near future to predict short-term and long-term risks of cardiac disease and death. Serial troponin levels are currently measured in those with ischemia to determine the risk of AMI. Troponin levels are used to plan medical and surgical treatments.

View Page

Case Studies in Clinical Microbiology
Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) susceptibility tests should be performed against other beta lactam antibiotics on important S. pneumoniae isolates from blood cultures and other sterile body fluids when a MIC for penicillin is performed.View Page
Extended-Spectrum Beta-Lactamase (ESBL) Activity

Illustrated in the image is the surface of a disk diffusion test including a 30 mg ceftazidime disk (left) and a combintation 30/10 mg ceftazidime/clavulanic acid disk (right). Observe in the photograph that the zone of inhibition around the the combination ceftazidime/clavulanic acid disk (right) is at least 5 mm larger than around the clavulanic acid disk (left). This observation that the presence of clavulanic acid, a beta-lactamase inhibitor, has resulted in such a large increase in the zone of inhibition indicates that an extended-spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL)is being produced. Additionally, the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) Performance Standards for Antimicrobial Testing Standards, published January 2011, proposes in the M100-S21document, table 2A-S1, that cefotaxime (30 mg) and cefotazime-clavulanic acid (30/10 mg) testing per performed alone AND in combination with the ceftazidime and ceftazidime/clavulanic acid testing previously described. When an organism is producing an ESBL, the susceptibility to individual cephalosporins cannot be predicted, thus requiring that each drug must be tested individually.

View Page
Extended-Spectrum Beta-Lactamases (ESBLs) Review

Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI). Methods for Dilution Antimicrobial Susceptibility Tests for Bacteria That Grow Aerobically; Approved Standard-Eighth Edition. CLSI document M07-A8. Wayne, PA: 2009. Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI). Performance Standards for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing; Twenty-First Informational Supplement. CLSI document M100-S21. Wayne, PA: 2011. It is important to detect ESBL-producing stains of Klebsiella pneumoniae, K. oxytoca, Escherichia. coli, and Proteus mirabilis as treatment failure may occur if the wrong cephalosporin is selected. These enzymes have the ability to hydrolyze third-generation cephalosporins and aztreonam, but are inhibited by clavulanic acid. ESBL-producing organisms can also exhibit co-resistance to many other classes of antibiotics. In January 2010, the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) published revised cephalosporin (cefazolin, cefotaxime, ceftazidime, ceftizoxime, and ceftriaxone) and aztreonam interpretive criteria for Enterobacteriaceae. The criteria for cefepime and cefuroxime (parenteral) did not change. Laboratories using these new criteria detailed in the M100-S21 document, table 2A, published in January 2011, no longer need to routinely test for extended-spectrum beta-lactamases (ESBLs) prior to reporting results. IF using the new criteria, there is no longer a need to change the interpretive criteria for cephalosporin's, aztreonam or penicillin's from susceptible to resistant before reporting. IF reporting moxalactam, cefonicid, cefamandole, or cefoperazone for E. coli, Klebsiella, or Proteus species, ESBL testing should still be performed as outlined in CLSI document M100-S21, supplemental table 2A-S1. If these isolates test ESBL positive, they should be reported as resistant. These drugs have limited availability in many countries, so the interpretive criteria were not evaluated by CLSI. CLSI notes that ESBL testing could still be useful for epidemiology and infection control purposes. ESBL testing should also continue to be performed until the new CLSI interpretive criteria is implemented.

View Page
Vancomycin Resistance

Vancomycin and ampicillin resistance among Enterococcus species, particularly E. faecium have been on a steady increase. The disk diffusion screening test is used in many laboratories to detect vancomycin resistant strains. Note in the upper image that no zone of inhibition is seen around either the vancomycin or the ampicillin disk, indicating resistance to both drugs. Vancomycin-resistant Enterococci (VRE) have been divided into three phenotypes--Van A, Van B, and Van C. Vancomycin-resistant strains of E. faecalis and E. faecium are commonly of the Van A phenotype, demonstrating high level resistance (MIC's higher than 64 ug/mL), as illustrated by total resistance of the test strain in the E test and the VA disk, as illustrated in the lower image. The strain shown in the lower image, however, is ampicillin susceptible at the level of 1 ug/mL (see lower set of yellow arrows), indicating that this drug may be effective in treating the urinary tract infection.

View Page
Which of the following result in most Eikenella cellulitis infections?View Page

Chemical Screening of Urine by Reagent Strip (retired March 2012)
False Positive Protein Results

A urine specimen that has remained at room temperature for an extended period of time may produce a false-positive protein result on a reagent strip. A false positive may also occur in the presence of bacterial contamination, alkaline medication, or quaternary ammonium compounds such as disinfectants or drugs, and with skin cleansers containing chlorhexidine.

View Page
False Positive Ketone Results

False positive ketone results may be seen in patients after BSP or PSP dye injection due to the phthaleins. The presence of L-DOPA metabolites, some urine preservatives (e.g. 8-hydroxyquinaline), or high levels of phenylketones will also cause false positive results. Antihypertensive drugs such as methyldopa and captopril also may produce false positive results.

View Page
Clinical Significance

No blood is found in the urine of healthy individuals although samples from menstruating females, frequently, but not always, test positive for blood. Hematuria is associated with renal or genital urinary disorders in which the bleeding is the result of irritation to the involved organs or trauma. Examples include renal calculi, pyelonephritis, glomerulonephritis, tumors, trauma or exposure to toxic chemicals or drugs and/or strenuous exercise. Hemoglobinuria may be due to the lysis of red cells within the urinary tract. If it is caused by intravascular hemolysis, the hemoglobin is then filtered through the glomeruli. In the normal individual, the hemoglobin molecule attaches to haptoglobin and in this way bypasses the kidney filtration system. When the hemoglobin/haptoglobin system is overwhelmed, as in cases of hemolytic anemia, severe burns, transfusion reaction, infection or strenuous exercise, hemoglobin passes into the urine.

View Page
False Positive Urobilinogen Results

A false positive urobilinogen reaction may occur with the dipstick method when substances known to react with Ehrlich's reagent such as sulfonamides and p-aminosalicylic acid are present in the urine. Drugs that contain Azo dyes, such as Azo Gantrisin®, have a gold color that masks the reaction, causing a false positive reaction. Atypical color reactions may be obtained in the presence of high concentrations of p-aminobenzoic acid. The dipstick urobilinogen test cannot detect porphobilinogen in a urine specimen. Porphobilinogen is a molecule formed during the synthesis of the heme portion of hemoglobin.

View Page
False Negative

False negative results may occur in the presence of significant levels of protein or glucose and in urines with high specific gravity which may crenate the white blood cells causing them to be come unable to release esterases. Some drugs such as Cephalexin (Kelfex®), Cephalothin Keflin®) or high concentrations of oxalic acid may also cause decreased test results. Tetracycline may cause decreased activity, and high levels of the drug may cause a false negative reaction. Large amounts of ascorbate may cause false negative results.

View Page

Chemistry / Urinalysis Question Bank - Review Mode (no CE)
Identify the urine sediment elements shown by the arrow:View Page
Which of the following enzymes is the most sensitive indicator of liver damage associated with alcohol ingestion:View Page
Thin-layer chromatography is particularly useful as a tool in the identification of:View Page

Confirmatory and Secondary Urinalysis Screening Tests
Confirmation of Urine Bilirubin Result

The reagent strip test for bilirubin may not be sensitive enough to detect small amounts of bilirubin in urine, which may be present in the earliest phases of liver disease or viral hepatitis. The Ictotest® reagent tablet is more sensitive and is recommended when bilirubin in the urine is particularly of interest. False-positive results can occur in screening procedures for bilirubin due to color interference from large amounts of blood in the urine, very concentrated urine, or drugs that discolor the urine, such as phenazopyridine (Pyridium). Because of this, it is important to verify positive or questionable bilirubin results with a confirmatory method, such as the diazo tablet test, available commercially as the Ictotest®. Ictotest® will detect as little as 0.05-0.10 mg bilirubin/dL urine, making it the procedure of choice for confirming bilirubin in urine specimens.

View Page

Department of Transportation (DOT) Federally Regulated Urine Specimen Collection Training
Federal drug testing custody and control form (CCF)

The federal drug testing custody and control form (CCF) must be used to document every urine collection required by the Department of Transportation drug testing program. At the present time, these include the: Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) Research and Special Programs Administration (Pipeline) (RSPA) Federal Transit Administration (FTA) Federal Railroad Administration (FRA) United States Coast Guard (USCG)

View Page
Non-federally regulated custody and control form

The Non-Federally Regulated Custody and Control Form is most often used in clinics and hospital emergency rooms when drug abuse is suspected, or by companies participating in their state's drug-free workplace program. Be aware that some states mandate the use of a special CCF for their drug-free workplace program. There are significant differences between the Federally Regulated CCF and the Non-Regulated CCF. You are strongly encouraged to review the difference between the two. Unless there are extenuating (which we will discuss next), remember that the two forms are not interchangeable. The Federally Regulated CCF can be used only for urine collections required by the Department of Transportation drug testing program.

View Page
Exceptions

It should also be understood that a Federally Regulated CCF need not be used in every situation involving a company regulated by the Department of Transportation. For example, if an interstate truck driver slips and falls while standing on the loading dock of a trucking terminal, and the trucking company for which the driver works requires a post-accident drug screen, a Non-Federally Regulated CCF would be appropriate for this collection. The driver was not involved in a safety sensitive assignment. On the other hand, if the driver had an accident while driving, then a Federally Regulated CCF must be used since the driver was in a safety sensitive position when the accident occurred.

View Page
Custody and Control Form

While the Federally Regulated CCF must be used exclusively for DOT drug screen collections, there are extenuating circumstances when another form of CCF may be used. For example, where a post-accident collection must be made and the collector does not have time to obtain a Federally Regulated CCF. In this situation, a Non-Federally Regulated CCF may be used. The collector should note in the "Remarks" section why the Non-Regulated CCF was used.The use of a Non-Regulated CCF for a Federally Regulated collection is not a reason for the laboratory to refuse to test the specimens nor the Medical Review Officer (MRO) to release the results. The use of a Non-Regulated CCF for a Federally Regulated drug screen is a "correctable flaw," which may include the collector detailing the reason for using a Non-Federally Regulated CCF in a "Memorandum for Record."

View Page
Intent of this program

This program is intended to provide guidance and training to those individuals who will be conducting both Department of Transportation (DOT) and Department of Health and Human Resources (HHS) regulated urine specimen collections. While this program is more than just an overview, obvious restraints prohibit an in-depth discussion of every procedure or problem that might be encountered. This program only serves as a training program. It does not represent final authority. Every effort has been taken to keep this course up-to-date with current regulations. However, if anything in this program conflicts with the Urine Specimen Collection Guidelines, U.S. Dept. of Transportation, Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance (Aug. 31, 2009), that reference prevails and must be followed.Training to qualify as a drug screen collector must include the flawless completion of five mock collections. These mock collections must include the following scenarios and must be performed in the presence of a qualified collector: Two uneventful collections. One collection in which the quantity of specimen is not sufficient. One collection in which the temperature of the specimen is out of range. One collection in which the donor refuses to sign either the donor certification on the Medical Review Officer's (pink) copy of the CCF or refuses to initial the security strips.

View Page
Five areas having prerequisites for proper collection

Regardless whether you are collecting a Federally Regulated or a Non-Federally Regulated urine drug screen, there are five areas which demand specific prerequisites or conditions prior to performing a proper collection. These are: Requirements for the collection site. Supplies needed to conduct a collection. Criteria that must be met by collectors. Complete and accurate documentation. Proper identification of the donor.We will explore each of these in more detail over the next several pages.

View Page
Collection site security requirements

All collection sites must meet the following security requirements: Must be able to prevent unauthorized access to the site during collection. Ensure that the donor does not have access to items that could be used to adulterate or dilute the specimen (e.g. soap, water, cleaning agents, etc.) Secure faucets, toilet tank tops, and other appropriate areas with tamper-evident tape if necessary. Ensure that the donor is at all times under the supervision of the collector or other collection site personnel. Provide for the secure handling and storage of specimens. (Specimens should be stored at 4-6° C. The refrigerator used should not be readily accessible to the general public and should be used only for the storage of urine drug screens and other clinical specimens. The refrigerator should be marked with a biohazard sign. No food or drink should ever be placed in the refrigerator.)

View Page
Acceptable forms of identification

One of the most important aspects of a urine drug screen collection is the correct identification of the donor. It is the responsibility of the donor to provide the collector appropriate identification upon arrival at the collection site.Acceptable forms of identification include: A photo identification such as a driver's license, an employee badge, or any other picture ID issued by either a federal, state, or local government agency. Identification made by an employer or a representative of the employer. In this latter case, the employer or employer representative can describe the donor to the suitability of the collector via a phone call.

View Page
If there are several donors waiting to have a drug screen and two or more restrooms are available at the collection site; it is acceptable for the collector to process more than one donor at a time.View Page
Collector applies tamper-evidence seals

After dispensing the urine specimen into the specimen vials, the collector, not the donor, removes the tamper-evidence seals from the control form and places them on the specimen vials. Seal "A" goes over the primary vial containing 30 mL; seal "B" goes over the secondary vial containing 15 mL. (When doing a Non-Regulated drug screen, since only one vial would be used, "A" would be the appropriate tamper-evidence seal to use.)The seal must be centered over the lid and down the sides of the vial to ensure that the lid cannot be removed without destroying the seal.

View Page
Donor refuses to complete paperwork

Refusal to Complete Donor Certification on Pink Copy of CCF or Initial Security Strips.If the donor refuses to complete the donor certification on the pink copy of the CCF, or refuses to initial the security strips after they have been affixed to the specimen vials, this is not considered a refusal to test. Do not debate with the donor. It is the responsibility of the collector to note the fact in the "Remarks" section of the CCF. Failure to do so may result in a Fatal Flaw. The MRO may not release the results of the drug screen unless the collector has noted in the "Remarks" section why the donor certification was not completed.Refusal to Provide ID or Social Security NumberIf the donor refuses to provide the collector with an ID or Social Security Number, this is not considered a refusal to test. The collector must make a notation of the fact in the "Remarks" section of the CCF. Failure to do so may result in a Fatal Flaw. After making the notation, the collector continues with the collection.

View Page
Shy bladder

The term "shy bladder" refers to a situation where the donor is unable to provide the sufficient amount of urine required for a drug screen.If the donor indicates upon arrival at the collection site that he or she cannot provide a specimen, the collector should begin the collection process anyway and have the donor make an attempt to provide a specimen. If after an attempt the donor cannot provide a specimen or can only provide a specimen of insufficient volume, the donor must be instructed not to leave the collection site and to do so will be considered a refusal to test. The donor should be monitored either by the collector or by another member of the collection site staff. The donor should be encouraged to drink up to 40 ounces of fluid reasonably distributed over a period of up to three (3) hours, or until the donor can provide a sufficient amount of urine, which ever comes first. If no specimen is provided on the first attempt, the same collection container may be used for the next attempt. The donor may keep possession of the container during the waiting period. The same CCF is used.

View Page
Observed collection scenarios

Scenario 1:A donor was asked to wash her hands prior to picking out the drug screen collection kit. The collector noticed that the donor was washing only one hand.Collector's response:The collector tells the donor that not washing both hands is an indication of possible interference with the testing process and that it could be interpreted as a refusal to test. If the donor still refuses to wash both hands, the collector must stop the collection process, note the refusal on the CCF and notify the DER.Scenario 2:The donor was asked to remove his hat before going into the restroom. As he reluctantly did so, it was noticed that he was trying to conceal a container that was hidden inside the hat.Collector's response:The collector first explains the circumstances to a supervisor. If the supervisor concurs that an observed collection should be done, the collector then tells the donor that a directly observed collection will be conducted because his conduct indicated a possible attempt to adulterate, substitute, or dilute the specimen. The collector marks on the CCF that the collection was observed and notes under Remarks why it was observed.

View Page
Responsibilities and requirements for collectors

You, as a collector, have a great deal of responsibility in the collection of urine for drug testing. It is imperative that you know, understand, and stay current with the rules and regulations. Do the very best you can to make every collection "error free." A collection site must be ready to demonstrate that it satisfies all requirements. Guidelines now mandate that "Federal agencies" inspect each year up to five percent of randomly selected sites used by the agency.

View Page

Dermal Puncture and Capillary Blood Collection
Using Sucrose as an Analgesic Prior to Heel Puncture and Capillary Blood Collection

Recent research has indicated that an appropriate dilution of sucrose solution when administered to an infant may serve as a pain relief measure. In some institutions, the nursing staff may require that an infant receive several drops of sucrose immediately prior to the puncture of a heel. This may release endorphins to relieve pain and reduce crying by the infant. Excessive crying may adversely affect some test results such as white blood cell count and capillary blood gases.If it is the policy of your institution to administer a sucrose solution, coordinate the timing of the dermal puncture with the administration of the sucrose solution by the clinical staff. Outpatients would also require the intervention of a nursing staff member to provide the sucrose solution. Phlebotomists are not licensed to administer medications or drugs. Therefore, it is typically NOT the responsibility or duty of the phlebotomist to administer sucrose solution. There may be contraindications for sucrose administration with some infants. Therefore, the clinical person in charge of the patient's care must determine if it is safe to administer the solution. As with all procedures, follow the policies and guidelines of your facility.

View Page

Electrophoresis
CE Advantages and Applications

CE is very rapid, efficient, easily automated, computerized, and requires only a microvolume of sample. Again a cooling system is included in instrumentation to prevent problems associated with the heat generated as discussed previously. The resolving power of CE is another important advantage.Proteins can be separated with CE along with inorganic ions, amino acids, drugs, vitamins, carbohydrates, oligonucleotides, and DNA fragments.

View Page

Emerging Cardiovascular Risk Markers
Lp(a)

Lipoprotein (a) is a modified version of LDL containing a unique protein, apolipoprotein (a). It was discovered in 1963 and is well-associated with vascular disease. Do not confuse apolipoprotein (a) with apolipoprotein A that is found on high density lipoprotein particles. Lipoprotein (a) is abbreviated as Lp(a). Lp(a) is an LDL particle whose ApoB molecule has formed a disulfide bond with another protein called Apo(a), see figure. Apo(a) is a protein very similar in structure to plasminogen. Numerous retrospective case control studies and prospective studies have shown Lp(a) to be an independent risk factor for vascular disease. This means that Lp(a) levels alone (not in conjunction with LDL, or patient risk factors) can predict cardiovascular risk. Lp(a) has been called the most atherogenic lipoprotein. Serum concentrations of Lp(a) are related to genetic factors; drugs and diet changes do not typically lower Lp(a) as they do LDL.

View Page
The hs-CRP Test

The traditional CRP test uses immunoassay methods that are sensitive to concentrations of 5-20 mg/L. The hs-CRP test, with its increased sensitivity, is able to detect C-reactive protein in lower levels, 0.5-10.0 mg/L. As with most risk markers, the results of hs-CRP testing are generally interpreted on a relative scale; the higher the value, the higher the risk of a future cardiovascular event.The American Heart Association and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention has defined risk groups with hs-CRP as follows: Low risk: < 1.0 mg/L Average risk: 1.0 to 3.0 mg/L High risk: > 3.0 mg/L It is important to note that hs-CRP assays are measuring the same protein as traditional CRP assays. Thus, in patients with active inflammation (such as chronic, active arthritis; lupus; infection; etc.) hs-CRP values would be expected to be high and would not necessarily implicate cardiovascular risk. If values greater than 10 mg/L are seen in repeated measurements, a non-cardiovascular cause should be considered. Taking anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs, aspirin, etc.) or the statin-class of cholesterol-lowering drugs may reduce CRP levels in patients. This is not an artifact, but is thought to be an effect of treating the underlying inflammatory process.

View Page

Fundamentals of Hemostasis
Prothrombin Time (PT)/INR

PT is a screening test that helps to assess the functionality of both the extrinsic and common pathways. The effectiveness and presence of factors I, II, V, VII, and X are assayed in this diagnostic test, as they are all found in the aforementioned pathways. The results of the PT test are used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests, as well as the clinical picture of the patient, to determine any hemostatic abnormalities that may be present.In addition to being an integral part of the coagulation disorder assessment process, the PT is also used to determine therapeutic effectiveness of the oral anticoagulant, warfarin. PT test results are reported as the number of seconds needed for a clot to form in the patient specimen using the laboratory's instrument/reagent system, and as the International Normalized Ratio (INR).

View Page
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?View Page
Platelet Function Assay

A platelet function assay (PFA) is a screening test for the evaluation of platelets/primary hemostasis. Common clinical applications include the following:Preoperative evaluation of platelet functionDetermining the presence of drug-induced platelet dysfunctionDetermining platelet functionality in high-risk pregnancyEvaluation of patients with suspected inherited or acquired platelet disorders such as von Willebrand diseaseEvaluation of a bleeding patientA PFA instrument is able to differentiate between drug-induced platelet defects and other platelet defects. PFA tests are superior to the bleeding time test. The bleeding time is often not reproducible and, in spite of attempts at standardization, remains prone to variations in test results between persons performing the test. It is also relatively insensitive to platelet function. The bleeding time cannot be used to identify patients who may have recently ingested aspirin or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or patients who may have a platelet defect attributable to these drugs. The bleeding time is used to assess platelet function, but may be affected by platelet quantity. NOTE: Aspirin, and some other drugs, may falsely prolong bleeding times. Patients must be asked about aspirin use, and be aspirin free for 7-10 days prior to testing, for valid results.

View Page
Oral Anticoagulant Therapy

The therapeutic use of oral anticoagulants is typically the long-term solution for the patient in terms of managing situations of thrombosis. Warfarin, a dicumarol derivative, is one of the most popular oral anticoagulants used today. While heparin is administered intravenously and acts to inhibit thrombin, warfarin is given orally, taken in pill form, and functions as a vitamin K antagonist. In earlier discussions, it was mentioned that certain clotting factors are considered to be vitamin K dependent. They require vitamin K molecules for their action to occur. Vitamin K dependent factors include factor II, VII, IX, and X. Vitamin K dependent metabolic processes involved with these coagulation factors are inhibited by drugs such as warfarin. The chemical structure of warfarin and similar anticoagulants enables them to bind competitively with free vitamin K. The prothrombin time (PT)/INR test is used to monitor oral anticoagulant therapy.

View Page

Fundamentals of Molecular Diagnostics (retired 2/12/2013)
Pharmacogenetics

Molecular methods have been expanding into the arena of pharmacogenetics (pharmacogenomics). Pharmacogenetics is the study of human genetic variations and their corresponding affects on the pharmacology of a drug.

View Page
Pharmacogenetics

Adverse drug reactions are a leading cause of morbidity and mortality in the United States. Drug metabolism is a process whereby drugs are delivered to the body, distributed, metabolized and then ultimately excreted. As there can be potentially significant differences between patient drug absorption, metabolism and excretion, molecular testing allows a physician to work with a patient's individual phenotype and/or genotype to deliver an optimum pharmaceutical selection and/or dosage.

View Page
Advantages of Molecular Testing

Molecular methodologies offer numerous advantages to the clinical laboratory. These include:Sensitivity: Amplification methodologies are particularly useful in increasing the sensitivity of a methodology and useful in the identification of target molecules of interest that are only present in low concentrations. Specificity: Molecular methods minimize false positive test results by targeting the specific molecule of interest.Turn around time: In comparison with standard traditional culture methods, molecular methodologies usually offer better turn around times from receipt to result reporting.Application: Broader application can be found with molecular methodologies such as infectious diseases, genetic testing, forensics, drug resistance, and tumor marker detection and monitoring.

View Page

Hematology / Hemostasis Question Bank - Review Mode (no CE)
The WBC indicated by the arrow in this illustration is exhibiting:View Page
Pelger-Huet anomaly is characterized by:View Page

Hemoglobinopathies: Hemoglobin S Disorders
Molecular Therapy

Most sickle cell patients who have increased levels of HbF experience milder forms of the disease than do patients with normal or low levels of HbF. Therefore, the focus of molecular treatments for sickle cell is to increase the level of fetal hemoglobin (HbF). The only drug currently approved by the FDA, which is used to induce increased production of HbF, is hydroxyurea. Hydroxyurea is a myelosuppresent and a ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor. However, the mechanism of hydroxyurea's influence in HbF production is not well understood. Hydroxyurea may also contribute to reduction of vaso-occlusion.

View Page
Which of the following is an FDA-approved therapeutic agent for treating sickle cell patients?View Page

Hereditary Hemochromatosis
Initial Treatment

Phlebotomy is considered the treatment of choice for patients with iron overload due to hereditary hemochromatosis (HH). Each unit of blood contains approximately 200 to 250 mg of iron. As erythrocytes are removed by phlebotomy, iron stores are mobilized and utilized in the production of new, circulating erythrocytes. Through periodic phlebotomies, stored iron is removed until iron-deficient erythropoiesis is induced. The initial, or iron reduction, phase of treatment typically consists of removing one unit (450 mL) of whole blood once or twice weekly. Prior to beginning phlebotomy, the patient's hemoglobin and hematocrit must be checked to ensure that the patient is not anemic. A sample for serum ferritin is also collected at this time.Initial treatment goals include inducing iron deficient hematopoiesis without the development of debilitating symptoms of anemia. A hemoglobin concentration of 10.0 to 12.0 g/dL is often used as a target range. The initial treatment phase continues until excess stored iron is removed and ferritin levels decrease to approximately 50 ng/mL. (13) Ferritin and hemoglobin levels are periodically monitored during this phase. The number of phlebotomies needed to reduce iron levels and induce anemia is related to the degree of initial iron overload. Patients may be referred to a hematologist or gastroenterologist during the initial treatment phase. Many patients receive therapeutic phlebotomy services in a hospital or doctor's office, but patients may also undergo phlebotomy at a blood center. Blood collected from persons with HH may be used for transfusion or as blood products if it has been collected from a facility with an approved variance from the US Food and Drug Administration. Not all blood centers have applied for or been granted this variance.(14)The initial treatment phase continues until excess stored iron is removed and ferritin levels decrease to approximately 50 ng/mL. Removal of excess stored iron may take from one month to three years.

View Page
What drug may be used to decrease iron levels in patients with iron overload?View Page

HIV Safety for Florida
Mutations

Genetic mutations in HIV are well known and are very likely, considering the presence of two RNA molecules per virus. Either or both RNA molecules can mutate. These mutations potentially lead to drug resistance or encourage the virus to evade the body's immune response. Mutations have created three major groups of HIV - M, N, and O. M is found in 99% of all the HIV cases in the world. N and O are primarily found in West African countries. N, though, infects only a very small number of individuals. The M group has subgroups lettered A to J. Subgroup B predominates in North America.

View Page

HIV: Structure and Replication (retired 2/20/2013)
Mutations

Genetic mutations in HIV are well known and are very likely, considering the presence of two RNA molecules per virus. Either or both RNA molecules can mutate. These mutations potentially lead to drug resistance or encourage the virus to evade the body's immune response. Mutations have created three major groups of HIV - M, N, and O. M is found in 99% of all the HIV cases in the world. N and O are primarily found in West African countries. N, though, infects only a very small number of individuals. The M group has subgroups lettered A to J. Subgroup B predominates in North America.

View Page

Human Papillomavirus (HPV) and Molecular Diagnostic Testing
Organizations and Agencies

Many public health and governmental agencies promote awareness and prevention as well as monitor HPV transmission and infections. Additional governmental agencies regulate clinical testing for HPV as well as prevention methods such as vaccines. Clinical organizations recommend testing protocols for the detection of carcinomas that can result from HPV infections. Agencies and organizations referred to in this course are: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Federal Food and Drug Administration (FDA) National Cancer Institute (NCI) American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP)

View Page

Introduction to Bone Marrow
Ring Sideroblasts

This slide shows a marrow aspiration smear with numerous ring sideroblasts. Normal red cell precursors have only one or at most two granules of iron in their cytoplasm. These abnormal red cell precursors have numerous iron containing granules in their cytoplasm indicating abnormal iron incorporation. This iron is actually incorporated into mitochondria. Ring sideroblasts can be seen in idiopathic sideroblastic anemia, and in sideroblastic anemia induced by drugs, lead poisoning, and alcohol abuse.

View Page
Hypocellular Bone Marrow Biopsy

This biopsy section was taken from a patient who has very few cellular elements in the marrow. Notice that over 90% of the marrow is composed of fat. If all of the cellular elements are decreased, the patient's condition is said to be pancytopenic or aplastic. There are numerous causes for aplasia, including drugs such as chloramphenicol, chemotherapy and inheritance (Fanconi's Anemia).

View Page

Introduction to the ABO Blood Group System
ABO Antibodies and Aging

ABO antibodies are not usually produced by an infant until 3 to 6 months of age. Antibodies found in the sera of newborns are almost always IgG, passively acquired from the mother. Thus, serum testing of newborns is not performed. Anti-A and anti-B titers are highest at ages 5-10 years and then they gradually decrease. Thus, in elderly patients, ABO antibodies may be difficult to detect. In patients with hypogammaglobulinemia, some leukemias, lymphomas or patients who are taking immunosuppressive drugs, the expected antibodies may be weak or even absent, reflecting the low levels of gamma globulin in the patient's serum. As previously mentioned, these and other ABO typing discrepancies must be resolved before true ABO type can be determined.

View Page

Laws and Rules of the Florida Board of Clinical Laboratory Personnel (retired 9/1/2010)
Description of Specialties (4)

Specialists in cytogenetics detect chromosome abnormalities and genetic disorders. Cytogenetics counseling may only be performed by an individual licenses in the cytogenetics specialty at the director level. Specialists in molecular genetics analyze DNA and RNA to find disease-related genotypes, mutations, and phenotypes in order to detect or predict disease and identify carriers. Specialists in histocompatibility test to determine tissue compatibility, prevent infections, and investigate and post-transplant problems. Techniques include blood typing, HLA typing, HLA antibody screening, disease markers, flow cytometry, crossmatching, HLA antibody identification, lymphocyte immunophenotyping, immunosuppressive drug assays, allogenic, isogeneic and autologous bone marrow processing and storage, mixed lymphocyte culture, stem cell culture, cell mediated assays, and assays for the presence of cytokines. Specialists in andrology and embryology examine gametes and embryos, including production, morphology, number, and motility, to address issues of fertility and infertility.

View Page
License on probation

An individual whose license that has been put on probation for violating the laws of the Board may be subject to any or all of the following requirements, as assigned by the Board: Practice only under direct supervision of a licensed clinical laboratory personBe reviewed on a quarterly basis by his / her supervisor, with reports submitted to the BoardSubmit a personal quarterly report to the Board describing the individual's progressComplete additional continuing education requirementsConsult a psychiatristNot consume alcohol or use any controlled or illegal substancesAttend AA or NA meetings weeklyUndergo and pay for random drug testingPay an administrative fineFailure to comply with all conditions of the probation will mean that the individual's license will be suspended or revoked.

View Page
Kickback and Inducement Violations

Offering or taking a bribe, kickback, bonus, commission, or inducement is against the rules of the Board and against the law. Many companies give away small promotional items, such as pens or note pads, to promote their products. This is legal, but be cautious about accepting more valuable items. This could be seen as a bribe. All of the following are serious violations of Board, state, and federal rules:Participating in any commissions, bonuses, kickbacks, inducements, or split-fee arrangements from physicians, health care providers, suppliers, hospitals, nursing homes, other clinical laboratories, pharmacies, and other facilities.Exploiting or influencing a patient for financial gain, including promoting, selling, or withholding services, drugs, or referrals.

View Page
Capability Violations

The accuracy and safety of patient testing depends on the capability and honesty of clinical laboratory personnel. If an individual's ability to perform testing is influenced by illness, injury, drug use (legal and illegal), or alcohol use, he or she may no longer practice. The Board can order a doctor's exam to determine if illness, injury, drugs, or alcohol is a factor. The individual can get his / her license back after recovery and proving that the condition is no longer a problem. If an individual commits a crime in any state relating to matters of honesty (such as filing false reports or advertising false services), that individual's Florida license may be suspended. Other licensed personnel who know that an individual is practicing despite being under the influence of drugs or alcohol, is physically or mentally incapable, has been convicted of a lab-related crime, or is not competent to perform his / her duties are required to report the individual to the Board. The following are violations of Board rules:Continuing to practice after becoming unable to safely perform testing because of illness or use of alcohol or drugs, or another mental or physical condition. Continuing to practice after being judged mentally or physically incapable.Being convicted of any crime relating to activities of clinical laboratory science or involving dishonesty or lack of morals. Failing to report to the Board that one has been convicted of a crime (as listed above), been judged mentally or physically incapable, or had a licensed revoked in another state. Knowingly allow an unqualified person to perform clinical laboratory duties.

View Page
Which of the following are violations of Board rules?View Page
If you know that a colleague has a drug problem that affects his / her work, you must report the colleague to the Board, your supervisor or director, or to another authority.View Page

Metabolic Syndrome
NCEP: ATP III Diagnostic Criteria for Metabolic Syndrome

Presence of three or more of these componentsComponentCriteriaAbdominal obesity: Increased waist circumferenceMen: > 40 inchesWomen: > 35 inchesElevated triglycerides> 150 mg/dL ordrug treatment for elevated triglyceridesReduced HDL-Cholesterol (HDL-C)Men: < 40 mg/dLWomen: < 50 mg/dLElevated blood pressure> 130/85 mm Hg or drug treatment for elevated blood pressureElevated fasting glucose> 100 mg/dL ordrug treatment for elevated glucose

View Page
At medical examination, a 50-year-old Caucasian male expressed concern regarding diabetes. There is a history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease in his family. He has gained a few pounds each year and his physician notes abdominal obesity. His physician orders laboratory tests to evalute his risk of cardiovascular disease.Vital Signs and Pertinent Laboratoy Results:Blood Pressure: 128/82 mm Hg Weight: 230 lbsHeight: 5' 11'' Calculated BMI: 32.1Waist Circumference: 45 inchesFasting Blood Glucose: 120 mg/dLTriglycerides: 170 mg/dLHDL-C: 42 mg/dLWhich one of the following statements regarding this patient is true if the physician uses the guidlines of NCEP: ATP III Diagnostic Criteria for metabolic syndrome evaluation?View Page
Treatment

The primary goal in treatment of those with metabolic syndrome is reduction of risk factors for atherosclerotic disease. If the person does not already have type 2 diabetes, prevention of diabetes is another critical goal in management and treatment. Lifestyle changes and medications are utilized to meet these goals.Lifestyle changes that reduce obesity are critical: increase physical activity, reduce the fat in the diet, and decrease calorie intake. Exercise provides benefits beyond just burning calories. Exercise stimulates anabolic metabolism, raises basal metabolism rate, decreases stress, and increases hormonal sensitivity. Cessation of smoking is also important.Often drug therapy is needed to address the patient's hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and/or hyperglycemia. Low-dose aspirin and other antiplatelet agents may be used to prevent thrombosis.

View Page

Molecular Methods in Clinical Microbiology
Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae

In 1988, Gen-Probe marketed the PACE® System, using non-amplified probes for the detection of Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This product was later followed by the PACE® 2 product line.Amplified assays for both Chlamydia and Neisseria followed in subsequent years, offered by several manufacturers. Automation of at least some parts of the process made it more feasible for clinical laboratories to incorporate molecular methods into their test menus.Roche developed a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) methodology focusing on specific nucleic acid sequences for both organisms. The Roche COBAS® AMPLICOR assay, on a semi-automated platform, obtained Food and Drug Administration (FDA) clearance in 1999. The Abbott LCx® semi-automated platform, based on ligase chain reaction, was also introduced around the same time. Shortly thereafter, Gen-Probe offered their APTIMA Combo 2® Assay, an amplification assay that utilized target capture. Later on, the TIGRIS® automated system by PROCLEIX® was added to provide automated specimen processing, enhancing the efficiency of the product line. Becton Dickenson then entered the arena, with the ProbeTec™, another semi-automated system based on strand displacement amplification.Digene also marketed its hybrid capture assay for Chlamydia and Neisseria. Unlike the other commercial assays, this method did not amplify the target DNA sequence, but instead employed a chemiluminescent methodology to amplify the signal of RNA:DNA hybrids.

View Page
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) and Mycobacterium

Human papilloma virus (HPV) is estimated to be the most common sexually transmitted infection in the United States. Digene's hybrid capture assay for HPV received approval by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in 2003. Only in recent years have other manufacturers, such as Third Wave Technologies, added this virus to their testing capabilities.Mycobacterium species represented another desirable target for molecular testing. Although some improvements in cultivation and staining techniques had been realized through the incorporation of broth media and fluorochrome staining, identification is still hampered by the growth rate of the organism. Gen-Probe first marketed probes that would allow identification of tuberculosis, M. avium-intracellulare, and M. gordonae in culture positive specimens. These probes greatly streamlined the workup of culture positive specimens.Of great interest to both clinicians and infection control practitioners, is the direct detection of Mycobacterium in clinical specimens. Gen-Probe received FDA approval for its AMPLIFIED MTDâ product for this specific application (in smear positive specimens) in 1995. This method employs isothermal transcription mediated amplification; the amplicons are detected using the same hybridization as the culture confirmation tests.

View Page
Detection and Identification of Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) by Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

MRSA presents both clinical and infection control challenges. Because of the increasing incidence of MRSA strains, empiric treatment for serious staph infections is usually vancomycin in the hospital setting. Although PNA-FISH can identify Staphyloccocus aureus more rapidly, it cannot yet differentiate MRSA from methicillin-susceptible S. aureus (MSSA) strains. Early differentiation of MRSA from non-MRSA strains could allow for adjustment from broad spectrum antimicrobial therapy, and reduced risk of development of resistance. Hospital acquired infections have garnered increasing attention from many quarters; MRSA is one of several drug resistant organisms that are of concern. Many institutions have implemented active surveillance culture (ASC) protocols to identify carriers of MRSA, both upon admission, and throughout the hospital stay. Identified carriers are placed under precaution protocols, to minimize risk of transmission to other patients during the hospital stay. MRSA status is also an important consideration for those patients who are being discharged to another facility (long term care or rehabilitation centers). Identifying carriers sooner rather than later can reduce the risk of transmission by earlier implementation of precaution protocols and reduce delays in discharge (and length of hospital stay) in situations where carrier status is needed prior to discharge. PCR methodologies offer the prospect of providing screening results 24 to 40 hours sooner than culture methodologies, depending on the culture medium employed.

View Page
Introduction of Molecular Methods

One of the first companies to bring a Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved molecular assay to market was Prodesse. Their Hexaplex® assay was a multiplex assay for the detection of influenza A and B, parainfluenza types 1, 2, and 3, and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Employing RT-PCR to detect viral DNA, detection occurred as a post-amplification step, employing peroxidase labeled probes. Published studies in 2001 indicated good sensitivity and specificity, but, higher cost per test. The assay was also found to be labor intensive and lengthy.In early 2008, the FDA approved two assays: Prodesses's ProFlu+™ and the xTAG® Respiratory Viral Panel, marketed by Luminex. The ProFlu+™ assay is a real-time, multiplex PCR. In a closed tube system, it simultaneously detects Influenza A and B, and RSV, utilizing RT-PCR. Total turnaround time, including extraction, is approximately 3 hours.The xTAG® assay detects more viruses. In addition to Influenza A and B, and RSV, the assay detects parainfluenza, metapneumovirus, rhinovirus, and adenovirus. The test process includes amplification by PCR, followed by analysis on a Luminex instrument. This assay provided simultaneous subtyping of Influenza H1, H3, and nonspecific types (which the Prodesse assay did not). However, turnaround time was significantly longer. These assays helped draw an increasing interest in molecular assays for respiratory viruses in general and influenza in particular. But in many laboratories, testing protocols were completely upended in the spring of 2009, with the onset of the swine flu epidemic.

View Page
2009 - Swine Flu

The 2009 H1N1 influenza virus was first detected in the United States on April 15, 2009.The virus was a unique combination of influenza virus genes never previously identified in either animals or people; they were most closely related to swine-lineage H1N1 viruses (hence the designation of "swine influenza"). However, epidemiological investigations of initial human cases did not identify exposures to pigs and it became apparent that this new virus was circulating among humans and not among U.S. pig herds.By April 21, 2009, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) began working on development of a new vaccine effective against this new strain. On April 24, 2009, the CDC uploaded complete gene sequences of the 2009 H1N1 virus to a publicly accessible international influenza database. At the same time vaccine development was occurring, work was also being done at CDC to help laboratories more quickly identify the 2009 H1N1 virus in patient samples. A real time PCR assay developed by the CDC was cleared for use by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) under an Emergency Use Authorization (EUA) on April 28, 2009.The development of an effective, rapidly performed molecular assay was critical, because a CDC evaluation of non-molecular rapid influenza assays indicated that while these tests were capable of detecting the novel H1N1 strain when present in high concentrations, the overall sensitivity was low. Positive results with these assays were useful, but negative results did not rule out infection with influenza.

View Page

Multi-drug Resistant Organisms: MRSA, VRE, and Clostridium difficile
Beta-lactam antibiotics and S. aureus

Antibiotics inhibit bacterial growth by interfering with one or more cellular processes. Beta lactams are a large group of cell wall active antibiotics used to treat a wide variety of infections. S. aureus cell wall synthesis is dependent on the proper functioning of a number of enzymes. The beta-lactam antibiotics exert their effect by binding with one specific type of enzyme, transpeptidase, thus interfering with its ability to catalyze the final stage of peptidoglycan synthesis, resulting in defective cell wall formation. The beta-lactams comprise four main groups of antibiotics; all have the beta-lactam ring as their basic chemical structure: Penicillins (penicillin, oxacillin/methicillin, ampicillin and piperacillin) Cephalosporins Carbapenems Monobactams The spectrum of antimicrobial activity is dependent upon the particular structural modification of the beta-lactam ring. The transpeptidases are commonly referred to as penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs). Different bacterial species have distinct PBPs, resulting in very specific drug interactions.

View Page
Beta-lactams and Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to the beta-lactam antibiotics. The term methicillin-resistant is historically used to describe resistance to any of this class of antimicrobials even though methicillin is no longer the drug of choice. The acronym MRSA persists and is used interchangeably with ORSA – oxacillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Oxacillin/methicillin resistance implies resistance to all penicillins, cephalosporins, monobactams, carbepenems and beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitor combinations. S. aureus intrinsically produces beta lactamase enzymes that breakdown beta lactam antibiotics (i.e., penicillin); these are designated PBP 1 - 4. The beta-lactam resistance of MRSA is determined by the production of a novel penicillin binding protein called PBP 2' (PBP 2a), that has a reduced binding affinity for beta-lactam antibiotics. This allows MRSA strains to continue cell wall synthesis due to the uninhibited activity of PBP2' even in the presence of otherwise inhibitory concentrations of beta-lactam antibiotics.PBP2' is encoded by a mecA gene located on the MRSA chromosome and is widely distributed among Staphylococcus aureus as well as coagulase-negative staphylococci. The mecA gene is carried by a novel mobile genetic element, designated staphylococcal cassette chromosome mec – SCCmec that is integrated into the bacterial chromosome. The mecA gene is believed to have originated in some coagulase-negative staphylococcal strains and was then transferred into S. aureus, giving rise to MRSA. It is likely that SCCmec serves as the carrier of the mecA gene moving across staphylococcal spp. as these mecA genes have never been found without the presence of a SCCmec-like structure. Phylogenetic analyses of international collections of MRSA and methicillin-susceptible S. aureus isolates have revealed that methicillin resistance has arisen in five distinct lineages designated SCCmec I – V, which differ in both size and genetic composition. In recent years, the gene has continued to evolve so that many MRSA strains are currently resistant to several different antibiotics.

View Page
Which are true statements regarding hospital-associated methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureaus (HA-MRSA) and community-associated MRSA (CA-MRSA)?View Page
VISA and VRSA

Like methicillin, vancomycin exerts its antimicrobial effect by inhibiting cell wall synthesis, binding irreversibly to cell wall precursors – D-alanyl-D-alanine; and attacking sites responsible for cell wall synthesis. Resistance in VISA strains is thought to be due to: Accelerated peptidoglycan synthesis with increased quantities of D-alanyl-D-alanine residues, which bind & sequester vancomycin molecules Thicker cell walls with reduced peptidoglycan cross-linking (impedes progress of drug molecules) Increased glutamine mucopeptides. All strains with MIC ≥4 µg/ml should be considered candidate VISA strains.Cell wall thickening and transfer of genetic material underlie the development of vancomycin resistance. There is evidence to support the transfer of genetic material among vancomycin-resistant bacterial isolates; the Michigan (2002) VRSA isolate acquired the vanA gene via interspecies transfer from a co-isolated vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecalis.

View Page
Treatment of CDI/CDAD

The first step in treating patients with CDAD is to discontinue the causative agent wherever possible. The choice for initial antibiotic therapy depends on the severity of disease. Oral vancomycin or metronidazole remain the mainstays of therapy for C. difficile infection, with vancomycin reserved for patients with more severe disease and/or those who have not responded to metronidazole. Metronidazole is currently favored in guidelines from the CDC on the basis of cost and concern that oral vancomycin promotes colonization with vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus. Oral fluids (water and electrolytes) may be necessary to counteract fluid loss as a result of excessive diarrhea, which can quickly lead to dehydration. Patients with fulminant disease and toxic megacolon may require colectomy. Recurrence of C. difficile infection (CDI) is becoming an increasing problem. Most recurrences happen 7 - 14 days after completion of therapy, suggesting relapse rather than re-infection. If a patient develops a second episode of CDI following initial successful treatment, it is recommended that if possible, the same drug be used to treat the second episode. Contributing factors to recurrent CDI include: Continuing exposure to organisms either through re-infection (via contaminated environment or poor hand hygiene) or an endogenous source, such as C. difficile spores in GI tract. An inability to mount an adequate anti-Toxin A IgM and/or IgG antibody response (i.e., poor host immune response); a likely reason why CDI affects an increasingly elderly population. Unfortunately a vicious cycle can arise whereby the initial treatment prescribed, vancomycin or metronidazole, significally disrupts normal colonic flora reducing colonization resistance and leaving the patient vulnerable to the next recurrent episode.Other treatments including the use of probiotics or anion-exchange resins to absorb toxins, may work in some cases but none work in every case.The goal of all treatment is to reestablish normal colonic flora so as to control C. difficile (over)growth.

View Page
Disinfection & Control of C. difficile Infection

C. difficile spores resist dessication for months and are known to persist on hard surfaces for up to 5 months. Spores persist even after exposure to air. Epidemic strain B1/NAP1/027 is known to hyper-sporulate, a virulence-associated characteristic of outbreak strains. Healthcare workers are an important vector for transmission as they may carry the spores on their hands or clothing. Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are very effective against non-sporulating organisms but do not kill C. difficile spores or remove the organism from the hands. The CDC recommends thorough hand washing using soap and water for care givers and family members alike.Patients with C. difficile infection (CDI) should be isolated to a single room with a bathroom or cohorted (roomed) together. Staff treating infected patients should use PPE (gowns & gloves) and wash hands after removing gloves. The use of gowns helps to prevent contamination of clothing. Surfaces should be decontaminated using a solution of 10% sodium hypochlorite (bleach), this is effective in reducing environmental contamination in hospital rooms. The CDC recommends the use of bleach for cleaning patient and staff rooms during outbreaks. Control strategies involving reinforcement of Infection control practices rather than drug restriction are more effective. These practices include: Proper education of staff members involved in care of CDI patients Better isolation compliance Use of gloves Frequent and thorough hand washing Environmental decontamination

View Page
Clostridium difficile-associated Diarrhea

Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD) is a unique hospital infection that occurs almost entirely in patients who have received previous antimicrobial treatment. Anaerobic gut flora are crucial to colonization resistance, so any disruption of the normal colonic flora (through illness, therapeutic procedures or, most commonly, antibiotic use) is essential to the pathogenesis of C. difficile infection. The association of CDAD with antibiotic use is significant. Early attention (1970s) focused on clindamycin but later on (1980s,1990s & continuing today) the cephalosporins, especially third generation, and broad spectrum penicillins (e.g., amoxycillin/ampicillin) were also implicated. The risk of CDAD is increased if C. difficile is resistant to the particular antimicrobial. In the case of clindamycin, C. difficile resistance is variable. Risk of infection due to a clindamycin-resistant strain increases with use of the drug. For the third generation cephalosporins, C. difficile is universally resistant; thus, any toxigenic strain is capable of causing CDAD during cephalosporin use. Other less commonly implicated antibiotics are the macrolides, e.g., erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin. However, prolonged courses of any antibiotics will increase the risk of disease. Even those antibiotics used to treat colitis (metronidazole, for example) have sometimes been reported to cause CDAD.The fluoroquinolones have been in use since the 1980s. Ciprofloxacin was approved in 1987, but it is only in recent years with the emergence of the epidemic strain 027/NAP1/BI, which is resistant to the fluoroquinolones, that this class of drugs has been implicated in Clostridium difficile disease. The fluoroquinolones were initially considered to be low risk but their use has been increasing, both with hospital inpatients and in the community, and fluoroquinolones are now implicated as a risk factor for C. difficile infection. The newer fluoroquinolones, e.g., gatifloxacin, moxifloxacin, have better activity against anaerobes, but poor in vitro activity against C. difficile, thus increasing the likelihood of CDAD. The CDC now recommends that all fluoroquinolones, as a class, be used sparingly as each poses an increased risk for CDAD.

View Page
With regards to identifying resistance in Enterococci, which general statements are true?View Page
Selection of Drugs for Testing

The panel of drugs selected for testing must take into consideration a number of factors: The laboratory performing the testing The number of drugs that can practically be tested Infection control requirements Drugs that are available in formularies Susceptibility patterns exhibited locally Consideration of the body site of the infection and whether the drug is an appropriate therapy

View Page

Mycology: Hyaline and Dematiaceous Fungi
The differentiation between Aspergillus species and Scedosporium species may be difficult when only hyphal elements are observed in stained tissue sections. It is important to obtain a culture to make this differentiation when possible because Scedosporium species, in contrast to Aspergillus species, tend to be resistant to:View Page

Mycology: Yeasts and Dimorphic Pathogens (retired 2/12/2013)
This photomicrograph is an acid-fast stained smear prepared from a yeast colony growing on ascospore agar. A helmet-shaped, red-staining, acid fast yeast cell is seen in the center of view at the tip of the arrow, against the background, blue-staining blastoconidia. The presumptive identification of Hansenula anomala was made. Predisposing conditions that may indicate that this isolate is more than a contaminant include:View Page

OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens
Spread of HBV In The Community

HBV is spread in society most often:Through shared needles used to inject drugsThrough sexual contactFrom mother to child before or during birth

View Page

OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens (retired)
Spread of HBV in the community(1)

HBV is spread in the community through: Sexual contact Drug abusers sharing contaminated needles An infant's exposure to its mother's body fluids

View Page

Packaging and Shipping Infectious Materials
IATA and US Postal Service Exempt Specimens

Laboratory specimens that are unlikely to cause disease and do not meet the criteria for category A or B substances are not subject to Division 6.2 regulations. Specimens for which the hazardous materials regulation (HMR) does not apply include human or animal samples (including, but not limited to, secreta, excreta, blood and its components, tissue and tissue fluids, and body parts) being transported for routine testing not related to the diagnosis of an infectious disease. This includes specimens that are being sent for:drug or alcohol testing cholesterol testing blood glucose level testing prostate specific antibody (PSA) testing testing to monitor kidney or liver function pregnancy testing tests for diagnosis of non-infectious diseases such as cancer biopsies The US Department of Transportation (DOT) has no "Exempt Specimen" classification and there are no DOT guidelines for packaging non-regulated specimens.* According to the DOT, in the U.S., if a package is marked as "Exempt Human/Animal Specimen" the understanding is that it contains no infectious substance. However, both IATA and the US Postal Service (USPS) have these requirements for packaging exempt specimens: Packaging IssueIATAUSPSType of packaging requiredTriple packagingTriple packagingOuter containerOne dimension must be a minimum of 100 mm X 100 mm (approximately 4 x 4 inches) Must be able to survive a drop test of 4 feet One dimension must be a minimum of 100 mm X 100 mm (approximately 4 x 4 inches) Must be able to survive a drop test of 4 feet Quantity limits: outer containerNone NoneQuantity limits: Primary receptacleNone500 mLQuantity limits: secondary packagingNone500 mL* Non-regulated specimens may become regulated because of preservatives, such as 10% formaldehyde (class 9) or 25% formaldehyde (class 8); or 25% ethanol (class 3).

View Page

Pharmacology in the Clinical Lab: Therapeutic Drug Monitoring and Pharmacogenomics (retired 10/15/2012)
Introduction

Therapeutic drug monitoring and pharmacogenomics are both pharmacy-related areas within the clinical laboratory. Although each is considered a sub-discipline within laboratory medicine, the two fields overlap significantly. In this course, we will provide an overview of each of these laboratory sub-disciplines and discuss the utility, rationale, and practice of each one.

View Page
Basic Pharmacokinetics

In order to discuss TDM and PGx we need to also introduce the concept of pharmacokinetics. Pharmacokinetics is the study of drug disposition in the body: how and when drugs enter the circulation, how long they remain in the blood, and how they are eliminated. TDM is the clinical assessment of a drug's pharmacokinetic properties. Physicians and pharmacists need to establish that a drug is present at an effective concentration but not at a toxic concentration. The next few pages will describe some of the factors that determine a drug's disposition in the body. These factors ultimately decide the need for therapeutic drug monitoring.

View Page
Drug Metabolism

The liver plays a major role in converting lipophilic nonpolar molecules (drug molecules) to more polar, water-soluble forms through a series of enzymatic reactions. Drug molecules can be modified by either phase I or phase ll reactions. Phase I reactions alter chemical structure by oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis. Phase ll reactions conjugate drugs to create products that are water-soluble.

View Page
Protein Binding

Most drugs are bound to proteins when they circulate in the body. Albumin is a major drug-binding protein in serum. Albumin is an alkaline protein, so acidic and neutral drugs primarily bind to it. If albumin binding sites become saturated, acidic and neutral drugs can bind to lipoproteins. Alkaline drugs tend to bind to globulins, particularly to the globulin, alpha-1 acid glycoprotein. Only free, unbound drugs are able to bind drug receptors and have therapeutic effects. An equilibrium exists in the systemic circulation between a free and protein-bound drug and between a free and receptor-bound drug. This is illustrated in the image to the right.

View Page
Other Factors Affecting Drug Absorption and Distribution

In addition to protein availability, other factors may affect drug absorption and distribution in the body as a whole or at specific sites within the body. The following table highlights some of these other factors. Factor Discussion Regional blood flow Reduced area blood flow can be seen in diabetics and enhanced blood flow can be seen in tumors. Lipid solubility of the drug The more lipophilic a drug is, the more likely it will enter the central nervous system. The integrity of the GI tract In a diseased gut, an orally-administered drug may not be absorbed as expected. Age Drug kinetics and dispositions change throughout life. In general, metabolism of drugs is reduced in the elderly. Genetics Mutations or deletions in drug metabolizing enzymes can greatly affect a drug's disposition.

View Page
Given what you have learned thus far, which of the following statements below do you think is true?View Page
Steady State

Most drugs are not given as a single dose but are part of a regimen. It is the physician's responsibility to prescribe a drug so that the concentration of that drug reaches a safe and effective level. The dosing-goal for the prescribing clinician, if multiple doses of a drug will be given, is for both the peak and the trough drug levels to be consistently within the therapeutic range. If a drug is given at intervals that are the same as its half-life, it will take about 5 half-lives to reach steady state.

View Page
Why TDM?

Pharmacologists determine a drug's pharmacokinetic characteristics empirically during clinical drug trials. From these studies, they are able to determine the solubility and distribution, the average half-life, the levels of protein binding, and the effective concentrations needed for treatment.

View Page
Unexpected Concentrations

TDM provides a quantitative measure of the circulating concentration of a drug. The physician determines if the dosage of the drug needs to be adjusted based on this information.If a drug concentration is determined to be outside the therapeutic range, it may be for one of the reasons listed in the table below. Reason Discussion Noncompliance Patients may (intentionally or unintentionally) not take the drug. TDM can thus help monitor compliance. Dosing errors The dose may have been erroneous or inappropriate given the patient's condition. Malabsorption The TDM result will reveal if the drug cannot be absorbed well through the gut and an alternative route of administration will be needed. Drug interactions Many drugs interfere with the absorption or metabolism of other drugs. These interactions will be revealed by TDM. Kidney or liver disease Any pathology that affects elimination will cause an elevation in a drug level that will be unmasked by TDM. Altered protein binding Changes in serum proteins can lead to big changes in the amount of free drug in serum. Variations in the genetics of drug-metabolizing enzymes can also affect drug concentrations in the body. This is the field of pharmacogenomics that will be discussed later in the course.

View Page
TDM for all drugs?

Can all drugs benefit from TDM? Not really. For TDM to be effective and useful, one or more of the following should apply: The effective concentration and toxic concentrations must be well-defined. The pharmacokinetics of the drug are known to be variable. The drug is given chronically. There is the potential for drug-to-drug interactions. The drug exhibits high protein binding. The toxicity will mimic the indication for the drug; toxicity may not be visible during an exam but will only be revealed with TDM. The patient is pregnant, very young, or elderly. Compliance or history with the drug is poor.

View Page
Examples of Drugs That are Monitored by TDM

Four major classes of drugs are frequently monitored by TDM: Antibiotics Anticonvulsants Immunosuppressants Cardiac medicationsThere are other drugs that are monitored by TDM that are not included in any of the above classifications, but the majority of TDM testing is performed for drugs that are included in one of these four categories.

View Page
TDM for Theophylline

Theophylline is used as a bronchodilator for treatment of moderate to severe asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). TDM is needed for theophylline because the kinetics of the drug are highly variable. It has a narrow therapeutic window, and overdose can result in elevated heart rate, arrhythmia, and CNS excitability. Clearance of the drug is increased in children, smokers, persons with cystic fibrosis, and persons with hyperthyroidism. Elimination is slowed in congestive heart failure and in the elderly.

View Page
A physician needs to prescribe a drug with a narrow therapeutic window. He is concerned about possible toxic effects. To assess the upper concentration of such a drug, which time for drawing the specimen do you think makes the most sense?View Page
Sampling

Ideally, a drug level would be monitored frequently and consistently, providing the clinician with a detailed pharmacokinetic profile over time. In reality, serum samples are often measured only during relatively infrequent clinic visits, meaning that many days or weeks may pass before a drug concentration 'snap-shot' is taken.

View Page
Albuterol is a fast-acting bronchodilator used acutely during asthma attacks. Which of the reasons below explains why TDM for albuterol is not available or common?View Page
Laboratory Methods

Immunoassay is the most common technique used by clinical laboratories for therapeutic drug monitoring. Antibodies that recognize drugs can be developed. Although most drugs are much too small to evoke an immune response, scientists can conjugate drugs to immunogenic proteins to produce antibodies that recognize drug-specific epitopes. There are several methods that utilize the principals of immunoassay for detection and quantification of therapeutic drugs in serum. Some of these methods are: Particle-enhanced turbidimetric inhibition immunoassay (PETINIA) Fluorescence Polarization Immunoassay (FPIA) Chemiluminescent assays

View Page
Protein Availability and Drug Dosing

Drug-binding proteins in serum can fluctuate in disease states. For example, if albumin levels fall, as can occur in liver failure or nephrotic syndrome, less albumin will be available for drug binding; a subsequent dose may produce a toxic concentration of free drug.The image on the right illustrates the loss of equilibrium between a protein-bound drug and a free drug when drug-binding proteins are diminished.Doses of drugs that are highly protein-bound may need to be adjusted in patients with lower drug-binding protein levels. Examples of some common drugs that are highly protein-bound include thyroxine, warfarin, diazepam, heparin, imipramine and phenytoin.

View Page
Therapeutic Drug Monitoring Definition

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM) is a branch of clinical chemistry that specializes in the measurement of medication levels in serum. TDM requires quantitative measurements of drugs and/or their metabolites.

View Page
Drug Concentration Over Time

When a drug enters the body, it reaches a peak concentration that starts to fall as the drug is eliminated. The figure on the right shows a typical kinetic with a drug given intravenously (IV).

View Page
Half-life

The amount of time it takes for a drug's concentration in the body to decrease by 50% is called the drug's half-life (t1/2).The longer a drug's half-life, the slower it is removed from the body. Most drugs are eliminated from the body in 1 to 3 days, but some drugs with longer half-lives can still be detected in the body weeks after the initial dose. The figure below illustrates a typical kinetic pattern for an oral drug.

View Page
Bioavailability

Bioavailability refers to the amount of drug that actually reaches the circulation. It is calculated by comparing (in the same subjects) the area under the serum concentration - time curve (AUC) of an equivalent dose of the intravenous form and oral form. This is illustrated in the diagram on the right.For IV drugs, the bioavailability is 100%For oral medications, the bioavailability will be less than 100%, due in part to any of these reasons:* Oral drugs take longer to enter the circulation.* Oral drugs have slower absorption and distribution than IV drugs.* The amount of drug that is absorbed can depend on the status of the GI tract (stomach pH, presence of food, integrity/health of the intestines, speed of the GI tract, etc.)For oral drugs to be effective, bioavailability typically should be greater than 70%.Not all of a drug taken orally is able to have a pharmacologic effect; the dose would need to be higher than an IV dose.Since the absorption of an oral drug is slower than an IV drug and the drug takes longer to enter the circulation, clearing the drug will also most likely take a longer time.

View Page
Steady State Example

If the drug Gentamicin has an elimination half-life of 12 hours and is given every 12 hours, the drug should reach steady state after 5 half-lives (60 hours). Notice in the diagram that this kind of dosing results in a 'sawtooth' pattern. Peaks correspond to the times right after the drug is taken; troughs correspond to the times right before the next dose.

View Page
Peak and Trough Sampling Times

To assess drug concentrations during the trough phase, blood should be drawn immediately before the next dose. To assess peak levels, the time for drawing depends on the route of administration: Oral: One hour after drug is taken (assumes a half-life of > two hours) IV: 15-30 minutes after injection/infusion Intramuscular (IM): 30 minutes - one hour after injection

View Page
Drug Elimination

Most water-soluble drugs are eliminated from the body through hepatic metabolism. renal filtration, or a combination of the two.An alteration in renal function will have a major effect on the clearance of the drug or its active metabolite(s). Decreased renal function results in elevated serum drug concentrations.

View Page
Why TDM?

However, every patient is unique. Changes in the gut (if the drug is taken orally), genetic variations in the liver's metabolizing enzymes, and the status of organs (like the kidneys and liver) all affect how a drug will be handled by an individual. TDM helps to ensure that a dosing regimen is appropriate for a given patient.

View Page
Why TDM?

Every drug has a sub-clinical concentration (a concentration at which effective therapy won't be achieved) and a toxic concentration (a concentration at which the drug will be harmful to the patient.)For some drugs, the range between the minimum effective concentration and the toxic concentration is large. These drugs are thus relatively safe. Other drugs have a very narrow therapeutic window and need closer monitoring. This is the role of TDM.Medications with narrow therapeutic windows, like the anticonvulsant carbamazepine (Tegretol), should be closely monitored since elevated doses can cause serious conditions such as agranulocytosis.

View Page
When is TDM Not Useful?

TDM is not useful for these drugs or in these specific situations: Intracelluar drugs that need to be converted to active forms (like AZT) Drugs in which the effects last much longer than the serum concentrations of the drugs; examples include antineoplastics (cancer chemotherapies) and warfarin Narcotic pain medications where continued use can lead to tolerance such that the levels needed for pain relief in one person would be toxic to another person

View Page
Alternative to TDM

Some drugs are more efficiently monitored by determining their effects rather than by measuring the serum drug level. Warfarin dosing, for example, is better monitored by measuring the Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).

View Page
TDM for Anticonvulsants

Anticonvulsants typically have narrow therapeutic windows. When levels are too low, the risk for seizure remains present. Drug levels that are too high can depress the central nervous system and may even lead to coma. Examples of anticonvulsants that are monitored by TDM include: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) Valproic acid (Depakene) Phenytoin (Dilantin) Phenobarbital Primidone (Mysoline)

View Page
TDM for Immunosuppressants

Drugs used to inhibit the immune system are part of standard treatment after transplant surgeries. Regarding the use of TDM, there are some reports of hepatotoxicity and nephrotoxicity with some agents, but the main reason for TDM is to ensure that concentrations are adequate to suppress the immune response and prevent rejection. Examples of immunosuppressants that are monitored by TDM include: Cyclosporine Methotrexate Tacrolimus FK778

View Page
TDM for Cardiac Medications

Inotropics (drugs used to increase the pumping ability of the heart) and antiarrhythmics may need TDM. The cardiac glycoside inotropics digoxin and digitoxin have narrow therapeutic windows. Overdose can cause vomiting, diarrhea, confusion, visual disturbances, and cardiac arryhthmias. Examples of cardiac medications that are monitored by TDM include: Digoxin Digitoxin Procainamide N-Acetylprocainamide (NAPA) -the metabolite of procainamide Quinidine

View Page
PETINIA

Particle-enhanced turbidimetric inhibition immunoassay (PETINIA) is a homogeneous competitive immunoassay.Antibody fragments and drug-latex particles will bind to form aggregates that increase the turbidity of the solution. Free drug from the sample competes for the antibody fragment, thereby decreasing the rate of particle aggregation. The rate of aggregation is inversely proportional to the concentration of drug in the sample.

View Page
FPIA

Fluoresence polarization immunoassay (FPIA) is also a homogenous competitive immunoassay. In this system, fluorescein-labeled drug competes with unlabeled drug from the patient's serum sample for binding sites on an antibody reagent. The patient's sample, presumably containing the therapeutic drug that is being monitored, and the fluorescein-labeled drug are added to a chamber containing antibody for that drug. The labeled and unlabeled drug will compete for binding sites on the antibody. The greater the amount of drug in the sample, the fewer the number of binding sites that are available for the labeled analyte, leaving a greater number of small, free fluorescein-labeled molecules in the solution.When the chamber is excited with plane polarized light, fluorescein will absorb the light and emit it at a higher wavelength as fluorescent light. A small, free fluorescein-labeled drug rotates randomly and faster than it would if it were bound to antibody, interrupting the light and leading to less emission of light. The larger antibody-drug-fluorescein complexes rotate slower and emit more light in the measured plane. A lower level of drug in the patient's sample results in greater emission of polarized light because there are more antibody-drug-fluorescein complexes present to produce light in the measured plane. A higher level of drug in the patient's sample results in a lower emission of polarized light. This inverse relationship between the concentration of the drug and the polarization units (signal) is illustrated in the image below.

View Page
Chemiluminescence

Chemiluminescent assays use antibodies that are conjugated to enzymes, such as peroxidase or alkaline phosphatase. These enzymes, mixed with chemiluminescent substrates, produce light in the visible spectrum. A direct relationship exists between the amount of drug that is present in the sample and the light units that are produced and measured by the luminometer in the instrument. Assays that use chemiluminescence are more sensitive than immunoassays that rely on the generation of a colored product.

View Page
Individualized Medicine

It has been said that we live in a new era of "individualized medicine." One of the primary drivers for this idea is the emerging field of pharmacogenomics (PGx). PGx is the study of how individual variations in the human genome affect responses to medications. The term "pharmacogenetics" is also used for this discipline (people in the field use both terms); however, the term 'pharmacogenomics' is becoming more popular since we now know the entire human genome. The primary reason that individuals metabolize and respond to drugs differently is the inter-individual differences in receptor proteins and enzymes that metabolize the drugs. Mutations in these receptor proteins and enzymes can give rise to very different responses to drugs. In PGx, these mutations are referred to as variants.

View Page
Polymorphism and CYP450

To discuss PGx, we must first define two terms - polymorphism and cytochrome P450 (CYP450).A polymorphism is a variation in a gene (allele) that affects at least 1% of the population. CYP450 refers to a family of enzymes found predominantly in the liver. CYP450 enzymes work on a variety of substrates (drugs), altering their chemical structures to facilitate excretion in the urine and feces. There are many known polymorphisms in CYP450 enzymes.

View Page
CYP450s

Many CYP450 enzymes have been characterized, and the substrates (drugs) that each can recognize have been worked out to a large extent. These subfamilies of CYP450 enzymes have all been associated with polymorphisms that can affect drug disposition: CYP1A2, CYP2C9, CYP2C19 and CYP2D6.

View Page
Enzyme Abnormalities and Drugs

The following is a list of enzymes for which known mutations have been associated with clinical effects. Enzymes Substrates (Drugs) Acetylaldehyde dehydrogenase Alcohol Acetylcholinesterase Succinylcholine Alcohol dehydrogenase Alcohol Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase Fluorouracil CYP2C9 Warfarin, phenytoin, losartan CYP2C19 Diazepam, omeprazole (Prilosec) CYP2D6 Many antidepressants, opioids, antiarrhythmics Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase Aspirin, quinidine N-acetyltransferase Procainamide, isoniazid Thioprine methyltransferase 6-mercaptopurine UDP-glucuronosyl transferase Acetaminophen, tolbutamide, irinotecan

View Page
Metabolizers

When discussing PGx, we classify a person according to his/her phenotype (metabolic capacity for a given enzyme).A poor metabolizer (PM) is a person who lacks the functional enzyme and therefore exhibits decreased metabolism of drugs. This person would require lower doses of a drug that is metabolized by that enzyme. A PM who receives a standard dose is more likely to experience unwanted side effects or toxicity. A PM can also experience diminished effects with drugs that need to be metabolized to active compounds by the enzyme in question.An ultrarapid metabolizer (UM) will require a higher dose than usual since he/she will eliminate the drug more quickly. A UM may be resistant to standard treatments, and it may take some time to adjust the dosage before therapy is achieved.An intermediate metabolizer (IM) has one wild-type (normal) copy of the gene and one absent or dysfunctional copy. The IM group is very heterogeneous.A person with normal enzyme activity is referred to as an extensive metabolizer (EM). This person should respond to standard dosages of a drug. Most people are EM's. This is the population in which most dosing regimens have been worked out in clinical trials.

View Page
CYP450 Induction and Inhibition

Variables other than mutations also affect CYP450 enzymes. Many drugs are able to induce CYP450 enzymes, and CYP450s can be inhibited by a variety of substances. For example, CYP2D6 can be inhibited by the common medications cimetidine (Tagamet) and fluoxetine (Prozac). Since many patients are on multiple medications and since dietary and environmental factors can change, CYP450 expression levels cannot be solely predicted based on their genotype. Some CYP450 inducers and inhibitors are listed in the table on the following page.

View Page
Genotype versus Phenotype

Genotyping can give us a definitive profile of a given CYP450 enzyme's mutations. But since there are dozens of mutations usually associated with each enzyme, a complete characterization of a CYP450 is not always realistic. Without complete sequencing of the entire allele, it may not be possible to entirely rule out a mutation in a patient who shows none of the more common polymorphisms. If we consider the number of possible mutations and the possible presence of inducing/inhibiting substances, phenotyping for drug metabolism may sound more reasonable than genotyping.

View Page
TDM and PGx

Can we use therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) to assess PGx?TDM of the drug in question can also tell us a good deal about a drug's metabolism and will also take into account all the other variables at play (co-medications, diet, impaired organ function, etc.) However, unlike genotyping and probe-drug testing, therapeutic drug monitoring must be performed during therapy, not before. So, in fact, TDM is not really used to predict therapy in PGx but serves as a confirmation of PGx findings. TDM and genotyping should be considered complementary and can be used in tandem to, first, predict and then verify appropriate serum drug levels.

View Page
The Bottom Line

By knowing a patient's disposition to specific drugs, the physician should be able to start the patient on an appropriate regimen rather than perfecting treatment based on trial and error. Drugs whose metabolism may prove to be problematic can be avoided, and second-line therapies that are metabolized by different, unaffected enzymes can be chosen. Clinical chemists, pharmacologists, and physicians need to translate knowledge of CYP450 polymorphisms into clinically-validated treatment algorithms. Dosing recommendations for PM, EM, IM and UM patients are beginning to appear in the literature for various classes of drugs, and the FDA is encouraging the incorporation of pharmacogenomic testing in the development process for new drugs.

View Page
A patient is taking cimetidine for a stomach ulcer. This drug inhibits CYP2D6. The patient is now prescribed amphetamine for narcolepsy. Amphetamine is metabolized by CYP2D6. What would you predict?View Page
A person who is classified as an ultrarapid metabolizer (UM) would need __________ of a drug metabolized by that enzyme.View Page
Warfarin Metabolism

The first specific pharmacogenomics (PGx) testing application most labs are likely to encounter is that used in patients taking warfarin. Recent studies have revealed that the variations seen in patients taking the anticoagulant warfarin are due to PGx factors. The consequences of incorrect warfarin dosing are obviously serious, with inadequate doses predisposing patients to thrombosis and higher doses placing them at risk for hemorrhage. The United States' Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recently approved updated labeling for Coumadin (warfarin sold by Bristol-Myers Squibb). The new labeling suggests that physicians incorporate PGx information into warfarin-dosing regimens for patients. Manufacturers of generic warfarin products are now adding similar labeling.

View Page
Warfarin Metabolism, continued

The genes involved in warfarin metabolism are CYP2C9 and vitamin K epoxide reductase complex subunit 1 (VKOR). Warfarin owes its anticoagulant action to its inhibition of VKOR. This enzyme recycles vitamin K, a critical element for the clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, as well as for proteins C, S, and Z. There are six CYP2C9 alleles that are known to cause prolonged metabolism of warfarin: CYP2C9 *2, *3, *4, *5, *6, and *11. (Polymorphisms in CYP450 genes are denoted with asterisks.)One-third of the patients that receive warfarin metabolize it differently than expected and experience a higher risk of bleeding.Genetic testing for the two most common polymorphisms (CYP2C9*2 and *3) as well as for VKOR may be able to reduce the variability associated with warfarin dosing response. Labs performing PGx testing can provide general warfarin dosing recommendations based on the patient's genotype analysis. The lab report will indicate whether a patient has a normal, mild, moderate, high, or very high sensitivity to warfarin. For example, a patient who has one CYP2C9 normal wild-type allele (CYP2C9 *1), one polymorphism (CYP2C9*3), and also a VKOR polymorphism is predicted to have a moderate sensitivity to warfarin. This patient should have frequent INR monitoring and possible warfarin dose reduction. It is important to recognize that knowing a genotype does not necessarily guarantee accurate dose prediction; other drugs and/or environmental or disease factors can also alter CYP2C9 activity. Therefore, monitoring the INR is still very important.

View Page
CYP2D6

CYP2D6 has received the most attention: It is estimated that about 25% of common drugs are metabolized by CYP2D6. CYP2D6 accounts for only about 1% of all CYP450 enzymes, but it is important in the metabolism of about 100 drugs. There are more than 80 genetic variants that have been described in the CYP2D6 gene. The normal, wild-type allele displays normal metabolic activity whereas some of the variant forms have enhanced or diminished activity. The variants can be grouped generally according to the resulting alterations in protein function. The groupings correlate with four major enzyme metabolic capacities (phenotypes): poor, intermediate, extensive (normal), or ultra-rapid metabolizers.

View Page
Genotype versus Phenotype

Phenotyping involves measuring the metabolism of a probe drug. For example, with CYP2D6, dextromethorphan or debrisoquine can be given to a patient to see how well the drug is metabolized. Both these drugs are safe and extensively metabolized by CYP2D6. By measuring the parent drug and the metabolite in urine, the metabolic capacity of a CYP450 enzyme can be estimated. Such testing is complex and tedious, however, and has not become routine in clinical laboratories. Therefore, genotyping is likely to be the main tool that is used for assessing the PGx of a patient.

View Page
References

Clinical Chemistry: Theory, Analysis, Correlation, 4th Edition. Lawrence A. Kaplan, Amadeo Pesce, Steven Kazmierczak. New York: Mosby, 2002.FDA Clears Genetic Lab Test for Warfarin Sensitivity. FDA News. U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Available at http://www.fda.gov/bbs/topics/NEWS/2007/NEW01701.html. Accessed June 3, 2008.Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 11th Edition. Laurence Brunton, John Lazo, Keith Parker. McGraw-Hill, 2005.Tanaka E, Terada M, Misawa S. Cytochrome P450 2E1: it's clinical and toxicological role. J Clin Pharm Ther. 2000 Jun;25(3):165-75.The Chemistry of Mind-Altering Drugs: History, Pharmacology, and Cultural Context. Daniel Perrine, American Chemical Society Publication, 1996.Tietz Textbook of Clinical Chemistry and Molecular Diagnostics, 4th Edition. Carl A. Burtis and Edward R. Ashwood, eds. Philadelphia: WB Saunders, 2005.

View Page

Phlebotomy
Plasma drugs and toxins

Drugs and toxins including therapeutic drugs and drugs of abuse may be present in the plasma. Other substances too numerous to mention are also present in plasma.

View Page
Plasma components

Plasma is the liquid portion of the blood. It contains many substances including:Water Electrolytes Sugars Proteins Lipids Drugs & Toxins

View Page
Peak and trough levels

A trough level is drawn immediately before the next dose of the drug is administered.A peak level is drawn 1 to several hours after the drug is administered (depending on the drug).

View Page
Collection times

Communication with the patient's nurse is critical, so that you can collect the trough specimen just before the next dose of drug is administered, and at the correct peak time.Collection times of trough and peak levels are often recorded in a log in the patients room.

View Page
Introduction

Physicians need to know the blood concentration of certain drugs in order to select the best dose for their patients.As a phlebotomist, you might be asked to draw peak (highest), and trough (lowest) levels of various therapeutic drugs.

View Page

Real-Time PCR
Laboratory Applications

There are numerous applications for real-time PCR in the laboratory for both diagnostic and research purposes. Diagnostic applicationsReal-time PCR can rapidly detect nucleic acids that are diagnostic of infectious diseases, cancers, and genetic abnormalities. Real-time PCR has allowed for viral quantitation of infectious and newly emerging diseases such as influenza A H1N1 subtype. In malignant diseases, real-time PCR can be performed directly on genomic DNA to detect translocation-specific malignant cells. For RNA samples, real-time PCR has become extremely important for the detection and monitoring of HIV, hepatitis C and CMV. Real-time PCR can also be used for array verification and drug therapy efficacy. Research applicationsIn a research setting, real-time PCR is primarily used to measure gene transcription. The technology is commonly used to determine genetic expression of a particular gene over time in response to different pharmacologic agents or environmental conditions and can also be used to compare gene expression in exposed and unexposed individuals. The use of real-time PCR in this manner can help researchers find and detect diagnostic or prognostic indicators to increase the understanding of disease pathogenesis.

View Page
Which is not an application of real-time PCR?View Page

Red Cell Disorders: Peripheral Blood Clues to Nonneoplastic Conditions
A 49-year-old male with pneumonia was treated with high-dose intravenous penicillin. He became jaundiced with yellow sclera. The image on the right is typical of other fields that were observed on his peripheral blood smear.Since penicillin may, in some individuals, cause autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the clinician requested a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) be performed. The DAT was positive, indicating that antibodies to the drug were produced, which then attached to the drug on the surface of the red cells. Hemolysis occured due to the drug-induced antibody attachment, leaving the patient with various abnormal red blood cell morphologies. Which of the following cell types would you report for this patient?View Page

Risk Management in the Clinical Laboratory
Federal Regulations for Risk Management

Several federal agencies share responsibilities for oversight of the healthcare industry in the United States. These agencies include: U.S. Department of Health and Human Services Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services- Responsible for regulating clinical laboratory testing through the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA). Food and Drug Administration (FDA)- Responsible for protecting public health through regulation of food, drugs, vaccines, blood and blood products, medical devices, and more. U.S. Department of Labor Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)- Ensures safe working conditions in healthcare as well as other industries. Some of the federal laws/regulations that affect clinical laboratories in the United States and relate either directly or indirectly to risk management include: Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) OSHA standards for hazard communication, chemical hygiene, and bloodborne pathogens Safe Medical Devices Act of 1990 (SMDA) The Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005

View Page
Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA)

In 1988, Congress passed The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments in order to establish quality standards for all laboratory testing to ensure accuracy, reliability and timeliness of laboratory results regardless of where the patient's specimen was tested. The CLIA regulations are based on the complexity of the test method. The more complicated the method, the more stringent the requirements. Three categories of tests have been established: waived, moderate (which includes the sub-category of provider-performed microscopy), and high complexity. CLIA stipulates the quality standards for proficiency testing, patient management, quality control, personnel qualifications, and quality assurance for those laboratories performing moderate and/or high complexity testing. Those laboratories performing only waived testing must enroll in CLIA and are required to follow the manufacturer's instructions for those testing methods performed. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services is charged with laboratory registration, fee collection, surveys, surveyor guidelines and training, enforcement, approval of proficiency testing providers as well as accrediting organizations and exempt states. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention is responsible for CLIA studies, convening the CLIA Committee, and providing scientific and technical support and consultation to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. It is the responsibility of the Food and Drug Administration to categorize new test methodologies.

View Page

Special Topics in Phlebotomy
Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

Therapeutic drug monitoring helps to ensure that a dosing regimen is appropriate for a given patient. The blood plasma concentration of the drug is measured to determine the correct dose that will achieve a therapeutic level of the drug without overdosing into a toxic range. When a drug enters the body, it reaches a peak concentration that starts to fall as the drug is eliminated.The amount of time it takes for a drug's concentration in the body to decrease by 50% is called the drug's half-life. The longer a drug's half-life, the slower it is removed from the body. Most drugs are eliminated from the body in one to three days, but some drugs with longer half-lives can still be detected in the body weeks after the initial dose.The figure on the right illustrates a typical concentration pattern for a drug that is given orally (ingested).

View Page
Peaks and Troughs

As the prescribed drug is used or metabolized by the body, the drug level decreases. The lowest level of the drug in the patient's body is called the trough level. The peak for a drug is when the level of the drug in the patient's body is the highest.To assess drug concentrations during the trough phase, blood should be drawn immediately before the next dose.To assess peak levels, the time for drawing depends on the route of administration:Intravenous (IV): 15 - 30 minutes after injection/infusionIntramuscular (IM): 30 minutes - one hour after injectionOral: One hour after drug is taken (assumes a half-life of > two hours)

View Page
Collection and Communication

The laboratory plays an important role in monitoring the level of therapeutic drugs. Communication with clinical personnel is critical. Blood specimens are collected at specific time intervals to determine the trough level and peak levels of the drug. The pharmacist uses these trough and peak values to adjust the dose of the drugs appropriately.It is the responsibility of the phlebotomist to obtain the specimen at the precise time ordered for the specific peak or trough drug level. With some drugs, altering the draw time by even 15 minutes can have an adverse affect on adjusting and administering the next drug dose.Obtain the specimen at the requested time. If the time is missed, ask the clinical staff if the test should still be obtained or if another draw time is desired. If the clinical staff still wants a specimen collected, make a note of the time the drug was administered in relation to when the specimen was collected.Failure to communicate could have an adverse effect on the patient who may be given too little or too much medication based on an erroneous test result.

View Page
To assess drug concentrations during the trough phase, blood should be drawn about one hour after the administration of an oral dose of the drug.View Page

The Disappearing Antibody: A Case Study
Using p values in medical research

Let's briefly review using p values in medical research. A simple example would be a randomized clinical trial to assess whether a new drug decreases levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) more than an established drug. Data are collected from subjects treated with new Drug A and established Drug B. Let's suppose that the mean LDL of Drug A is lower than that of Drug B. We want to know whether the difference is due to an effect of Drug A or if the difference is due to chance. There is no way we can ever be certain whether the observed difference reflects a true difference (Drug A is more effective in lowering LDL) or is just a coincidence of random sampling. All we can do is calculate probabilities (the p value) based on a null hypothesis. A null hypothesis states that there is no difference between the drugs. The p value is the probability of observing a difference as large or larger than was observed in the study, if the null hypothesis of no difference were true.

View Page

The Influenza A Virus: 2009 H1N1 Subtype
Other CDC Actions for the Influenza A 2009 H1N1 Virus

The CDC not only monitors the influenza A 2009 H1N1 virus, but also provides guidance to physicians, public health/healthcare employees, and the general public. The CDC also ensures that there are sufficient quantities of medicines and medical supplies in the event of a public health emergency. The branch in charge of stockpiling and dispersing these supplies is called the Strategic National Stockpile or SNS, which is a division of the CDC. During the outbreak of the H1N1 virus, the SNS dispersed antiviral drugs and respiratory protection devices and other personal protective equipment (PPE) across the United States as well as U.S. territories to assist in the response to the Influenza A 2009 H1N1 virus.

View Page
FDA Surveillance and H1N1 Preparedness

The US Food and Drug Administration's (FDA) worked with the CDC and other health agencies, both in the United States and globally, to protect public health during the H1N1 virus outbreak. The FDA ensures the safety, effectiveness, and supply of antiviral medications and the H1N1 vaccine that is produced and/or distributed in the United States; it has the responsibility of approving medical devices for the serologic testing of the 2009 H1N1 virus. The FDA also performs other roles such as ensuring the production of an adequate supply of respiratory protection and other personal protective equipment. The FDA also monitors the safety of the blood supply, and, although no cases of transmission of H1N1 virus through blood have been reported, the guidelines for donor deferral that have been established by the FDA further ensure that this would not occur.

View Page

The Urine Microscopic: Microscopic Analysis of Urine Sediment
Cuboidal Cells

Increased numbers of cuboidal cells are found in renal transplant rejection, acute tubular necrosis (diuretic phase), injuries that interrupt blood flow to the kidney, and acute glomerulonephritis accompanied by tubular damage. Ingestion of various drugs and chemicals may cause significant tubular shedding of these epithelial cells. Cuboidal cells are easily seen in urine in cases of salicylate intoxication.

View Page
Renal Tubular Epithelial Cell

Another type of epithelial cell is the renal tubular epithelial cell. The proximal and distal convoluted tubules are the sites of origin for one form of these cells. They occur singly and are large (14-60 microns). Papanicolaou stain is useful in distinguishing renal tubular cells from other mononuclear cells in urine. Increased numbers of proximal and distal convoluted renal epithelial cells are seen in cases of acute tubular necrosis and certain drug or heavy metal intoxication.

View Page
Summary of Abnormal Crystals

The characteristics of the more common types of abnormal crystals are summarized in the table below. CrystalColorSignificanceLeucineYellowMetabolismTyrosineColorless–yellowLiver disease (rare)CystineColorlessCystine metabolismCholesterolColorlessRenal tubular diseaseBilirubinGold-orangeIncreased bilirubinHigh doses of ampicillin, sulfonamide drugs, or other drugs may also result in urine crystal formation. It is important to check the patient's current medications when unusual crystals are found in the urine specimen.

View Page

Transfusion Reactions
Risks of Transfusion

Transfusion of blood components has the potential for both benefit and risk to the patient. According to the FDA Annual Summary of Fiscal Year 2009, 74 fatalities were reported following blood transfusions; forty-four of those fatalities were transfusion-related. Medical errors that could result in transfusion reactions include: Patient misidentification Sample labeling error Wrong blood type issued Transcription error Technical error Storage error Transfusion policies and procedures must be carefully followed to reduce transfusion reactions and prevent transfusion related death or serious injury.Several causes of transfusion-related deaths are summarized in the table below.Reference: U.S Food and Drug Administration. (2009). Fatalities Reported to FDA Following Blood Collection and Transfusion: Annual Summary for Fiscal Year 2009. Retrieved from http://www.fda.gov/downloads/BiologicsBloodVaccines/SafetyAvailability/ReportaProblem/TransfusionDonationFatalities/UCM205620.pdf. Accessed April 26, 2011.

View Page
Records and Reporting

After the medical director has reviewed the laboratory results from the investigation, the interpretation is recorded on the patient's permanent medical record. The transfusion service must retain the records of the test results, interpretations, and reaction classification indefinitely. In the U.S., deaths of patients resulting from a transfusion reaction must be reported to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) by the transfusion service as soon as possible. A written report must follow within seven days. The report should contain the patient's medical records, including laboratory reports and autopsy results. Transfusion services accrediting agencies, such as AABB, the College of American Pathologists (CAP), and the Joint Commission may require reporting to them as well. All of these agencies require that transfusion services have written policies for transfusion reactions addressing the steps for detection, evaluation, and reporting.

View Page
References

Harmening, DM. Modern Blood Banking and Transfusion Practices. 5th ed.Philadelphia, PA: FA Davis; 2005.Hillyer CD, Silberstein LE, Ness PM, Anderson, KC, Roback, JR. Blood Banking and Transfusion Medicine: Basic Principles and Practice. 2nd ed. Philadelphia, PA: Churchill Livingstone; 2007.Roback JD, Combs MR, Grossman BJ, Hillyer CD ed. AABB Technical Manual. 16th ed. Besthesda, MD: AABB; 2008.Rudman, SV. Textbook of Blood Banking and Transfusion Medicine. 2nd ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier Saunders; 2005.U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Blood Products Advisory Committee. April 27, 2007. Available at: http://www.fda.gov/ohrms/dockets/AC/07/briefing/2007-4300B2_01.htm. Accessed December 15, 2010.U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Infectious Disease Tests. 2009. Available at: http://www.fda.gov/BiologicsBloodVaccines/BloodBloodProducts/ApprovedProducts/LicensedProductsBLAs/BloodDonorScreening/InfectiousDisease/default.htm. Accessed December 15, 2010.U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Fatalities Reported to FDA Following Blood Collection and Transfusion: Annual Summary for Fiscal Year 2009. Available at: http://www.fda.gov/downloads/BiologicsBloodVaccines/SafetyAvailability/ReportaProblem/TransfusionDonationFatalities/UCM205620.pdf. Accessed December 15, 2010.

View Page
Definition and Epidemiology

Transfusion-associated acute lung injury (TRALI) is a complication of blood transfusion that results in shortness of breath due to pulmonary edema, fever, and hypotension. The pulmonary edema is noncardiogenic which means it does not originate from the heart. TRALI is a severely life-threatening adverse reaction. Symptoms manifest within 6 hours of transfusion. Products typically implicated in TRALI are Whole Blood, Red Blood Cells, Fresh Frozen Plasma, Cryoprecipitate, and Platelets, with Fresh Frozen Plasma being the most often implicated product. In combined fiscal years 2005 through 2009, transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) caused the higest number of reported fatalities (48%), followed by hemolytic transfusion reactions (26%) due to non-ABO (16%) and ABO (10%) incompatibilities. Complications of microbial infection, transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), and anaphylactic reactions each accounted for a smaller number of reported fatalities. TRALI has accounted for the highest number of reported transfusion-related fatalities throughout the first decade of 2000.Cases occur in all age groups and genders. Most patients that develop TRALI have no history of adverse reactions. TRALI is generally under-diagnosed and under-reported and the true incidence may be higher than stated estimates. Under-diagnosing is due to lack of recognition of the condition and that it can be easily confused with other diseases. Also, TRALI may be attributed to the underlying condition of the patient.Reference: U.S. Food and Drug Administration Website. Fatalities reported to FDA following blood collection and transfusion: Annual summary for fiscal year 2009. Available at: http://www.fda.gov/BiologicsBloodVaccines/SafetyAvailability/ReportaProblem/TransfusionDonationFatalities/ucm204763.htm. Accessed April 26, 2011.

View Page

Tuberculosis Awareness for Health Care Workers
Fundamentals of TB Infection Control

In 2005, a report from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) stated that "one of the most critical risks for health care-associated transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in health care settings is from patients with unrecognized TB disease who are not promptly handled with appropriate airborne precautions or who are moved from an AII [airborne infection isolation] room too soon."*These fundamentals of infection control have proven to substantially reduce health care-associated transmission of TB, including multi-drug resistant TB:Use of standardized anti-tuberculosis treatment regimens in the initial phase of therapyRapid drug susceptibility testingDirectly observed therapy in which a health professional watches a patient swallow each dose of medication and records the date that the administration was observedImproved infection control practices *Reference: Guidelines for preventing the transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in health-care settings, 2005. The CDC website. Available at: http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/pdf/rr/rr5417.pdf. Accessed November 1, 2012.

View Page

Variations in White Cell Morphology -- Granulocytes
Conditions Associated with Hypersegmented Neutrophils

There are a number of conditions in which hypersegmented neutrophils may be seen, such as megaloblastic anemias (including folic acid deficiency and pernicious anemia). Individuals who are receiving chemotherapy or have long-term chronic infections may also have hypersegmented neutrophils.The cells seen in these conditions would be classified as pathological since the body is responding abnormally as a result of either a deficiency of a component needed for DNA production or because of the toxic effect that chemotherapy drugs have on DNA.

View Page
Conditions Associated with Hyposegmented Neutrophils

The presence of hyposegmented neutrophils can be an acquired phenomenon, as a result of severe infection, burns, malignancy, chemotherapy or other drugs such as sulfonamides. When the causative agent is removed, the cells will return to normal. Percentages of neutrophils affected will vary in this condition. Hyposegmented neutrophils as an aquired phenomenon are known as pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells.

View Page
May-Hegglin Like Inclusion

Another example of a May-Hegglin-type body. This smear was from a case of pseudo May-Hegglin caused by drugs. Bizarre appearing platelets can also be seen in cases of pseudo May-Hegglin.

View Page
May-Hegglin Anomaly

May-Hegglin anomaly is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by the presence of pale blue inclusions in neutrophils called May-Hegglin bodies. May-Hegglin bodies, which are described as Döhle-like, are prominent and randomly distributed throughout the cytoplasm; inclusions can also occur in eosinophils, basophils, and monocytes. Additional findings include giant platelets, and occasional thrombocytopenia. Acquired forms of this anomaly may also occur as a result of the use of cytotoxic drugs. The blue arrow in the image points to a May-Hegglin body . The red arrow indicates a giant platelet, a characteristic that also helps to identify the anomaly.

View Page

White Cell and Platelet Disorders: Peripheral Blood Clues to Nonneoplastic Conditions
Select the letter representing the cell that can be seen in increased concentrations in the peripheral blood smear during immediate hypersensitivity reactions:View Page
The upper photograph of this bone marrow section also reveals distinct hyperplasia with total replacement of the fat. The lower photograph is a Wright/Giemsa stain. Calculate the M:E ratio of the distribution of myeloid and erythroid cells in the lower photograph. The peripheral white blood count was 18,500/cumm. The most likely associated condition is:View Page


MediaLab, Inc.

http://www.MediaLabInc.net    |    (877) 776-8460 (tollfree)    |    sales@medialabinc.net